JEE Main 7 April 2025 Shift 2 Question Paper with Answers
7 April 2025 · April session · 75 questions
The complete JEE Main 7 April 2025 Shift 2 paper — all 75 questions with the correct answer for each, tagged to the chapter it tests. Free to read, no account needed.
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The outer body of an aircraft is made of metal which protects persons sitting inside from lightning-strikes.
Reason (R): The electric field inside the cavity enclosed by a conductor is zero.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A)Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B)(A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(C)Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The density of the copper (2964Cu) nucleus is greater than that of the carbon (612C) nucleus.
Reason (R): The nucleus of mass number A has a radius proportional to A1/3.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A)(A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(B)(A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(C)Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(D)Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
A photo-emissive substance is illuminated with a radiation of wavelength λi so that it releases electrons with de-Broglie wavelength λe. The longest wavelength of radiation that can emit photoelectron is λ0. Expression for de-Broglie wavelength is given by: (m = mass of the electron, h = Planck's constant and c = speed of light)
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The radius vector from the Sun to a planet sweeps out equal areas in equal intervals of time and areal velocity of planet is constant.
Reason (R): For a central force field the angular momentum is constant.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A)Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B)Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
The helium and argon are put in the flask at the same room temperature (300 K). The ratio of average kinetic energies (per molecule) of helium and argon is: (Given: Molar mass of helium = 4 g/mol, Molar mass of argon = 40 g/mol)
A capillary tube of radius 0.1 mm is partly dipped in water (surface tension 70 dyn/cm and glass-water contact angle ≃0∘) with 30∘ inclined with vertical. The length of water risen in the capillary is __________ cm. (Take g=9.8 m/s2)
A mirror is used to produce an image with magnification of 41. If the distance between object and its image is 40 cm, then the focal length of the mirror is __________.
A dipole with two electric charges of 2 μC magnitude each, with separation distance 0.5 μm, is placed between the plates of a capacitor such that its axis is parallel to an electric field established between the plates with a potential difference of 5 V applied. Separation between the plates is 0.5 mm. If the dipole is rotated by 30∘ from the axis, it tends to realign in the direction due to a torque. The value of torque is:
The equation of a wave travelling on a string is y=sin[20πx+10πt], where x and t are distance and time in SI units. The minimum distance between two points having the same oscillating speed is:
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Refractive index of glass is higher than that of air.
Reason (R): Optical density of a medium is directly proportionate to its mass density which results in a proportionate refractive index.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A)(A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(B)Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(C)(A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(D)Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Magnetic monopoles do not exist.
Reason (R): Magnetic field lines are continuous and form closed loops.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A)Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(B)(A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(C)Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
A helicopter flying horizontally with a speed of 360 km/h at an altitude of 2 km, drops an object at an instant. The object hits the ground at a point O, 20 s after it is dropped. Displacement of 'O' from the position of helicopter where the object was released is: (use acceleration due to gravity g=10 m/s2 and neglect air resistance)
A transparent block A having refractive index μ=1.25 is surrounded by another medium of refractive index μ=1.0 as shown in the figure. A light ray is incident on the flat face of the block with incident angle θ as shown in the figure. What is the maximum value of θ for which light suffers total internal reflection at the top surface of the block?
A parallel plate capacitor has charge 5×10−8 C. A dielectric slab is inserted between the plates and almost fills the space between the plates. If the induced charge on one face of the slab is 4×10−8 C then the dielectric constant of the slab is __________.
An inductor of reactance 100 Ω, a capacitor of reactance 50 Ω, and a resistor of resistance 50 Ω are connected in series with an AC source of 10 V, 50 Hz. Average power dissipated by the circuit is __________ W.
Two cylindrical rods A and B made of different materials, are joined in a straight line. The ratio of lengths, radii and thermal conductivities of these rods are: LBLA=21, rBrA=2 and KBKA=21. The free ends of rods A and B are maintained at 400 K, 200 K, respectively. The temperature of the rods' interface is __________ K, when equilibrium is established.
The electric field in a region is given by E=(2i^+4j^+6k^)×103 N/C. The flux of the field through a rectangular surface parallel to the x-z plane is 6.0 Nm2C−1. The area of the surface is __________ cm2.
Let M and R be the mass and radius of a disc. A small disc of radius 3R is removed from the bigger disc as shown in the figure. The moment of inertia of the remaining part of the bigger disc about an axis AB passing through the centre O and perpendicular to the plane of the disc is x4MR2. The value of x is __________.
Given below are two statements:
Statement (I): On hydrolysis, oligo peptides give rise to fewer number of α-amino acids while proteins give rise to a large number of β-amino acids.
Statement (II): Natural proteins are denatured by acids which convert the water soluble form of fibrous proteins to their water insoluble form.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A)Both statement I and statement II are correct
(B)Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(C)Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(D)Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Mixture of 1 g each of chlorobenzene, aniline and benzoic acid is dissolved in 50 mL ethyl acetate and placed in a separating funnel. 5 M NaOH (30 mL) was added in the same funnel. The funnel was shaken vigorously and then kept aside. The ethyl acetate layer in the funnel contains:
A(g)→B(g)+C(g) is a first order reaction. The reaction was started with reactant A only. The total pressure of the system is Pt at time t and P∞ at the end of the reaction (t=∞). Which of the following expression is correct for the rate constant k?
"P" is an optically active compound with molecular formula C6H12O. When "P" is treated with 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine, it gives a positive test. However, in presence of Tollens reagent, "P" gives a negative test. Predict the structure of "P".
Liquid A and B form an ideal solution. The vapour pressure of pure liquids A and B are 350 and 750 mm Hg respectively at the same temperature. If xA and xB are the mole fraction of A and B in solution while yA and yB are the mole fraction of A and B in vapour phase then:
'X' is the number of acidic oxides among VO2, V2O3, CrO3, V2O5 and Mn2O7. The primary valency of cobalt in [Co(H2NCH2CH2NH2)3]2(SO4)3 is Y. The value of X + Y is:
The number of unpaired electrons responsible for the paramagnetic nature of the following complex species are respectively: [Fe(CN)6]3−, [FeF6]3−, [CoF6]3−, [Mn(CN)6]3−
Given below are two statements:
Statement (I): cis-1,2-dichloroethene is more polar than cis-1,2-dibromoethene.
Statement (II): Boiling point of trans-1,2-dibromoethene is lower than cis-1,2-dibromoethene but it is more polar than cis-1,2-dibromoethene.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A)Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(B)Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(C)Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
The extra stability of half-filled subshell is due to:
(A) Symmetrical distribution of electrons
(B) Smaller coulombic repulsion energy
(C) The presence of electrons with the same spin in non-degenerate orbitals
(D) Larger exchange energy
(E) Relatively smaller shielding of electrons by one another
Identify the correct statements:
The correct statements from the following are:
(A) Tl3+ is a powerful oxidising agent
(B) Al3+ does not get reduced easily
(C) Both Al3+ and Tl3+ are very stable in solution
(D) Tl+ is more stable than Tl3+
(E) Al3+ and Tl+ are highly stable
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1 M aqueous solution of each of Cu(NO3)2, AgNO3, Hg2(NO3)2 and Mg(NO3)2 are electrolysed using inert electrodes. Given: EAg+/Ag⊖=0.80 V, EHg22+/Hg⊖=0.79 V, ECu2+/Cu⊖=0.24 V and EMg2+/Mg⊖=−2.37 V.
Statement (I): With increasing voltage, the sequence of deposition of metals on the cathode will be Ag, Hg and Cu.
Statement (II): Magnesium will not be deposited at cathode instead oxygen gas will be evolved at the cathode.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A)Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(B)Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(C)Both statement I and statement II are correct
(D)Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
One litre buffer solution was prepared by adding 0.10 mol each of NH3 and NH4Cl in deionised water. The change in pH on addition of 0.05 mol of HCl to the above solution is __________ ×10−2. (Nearest integer) (Given: pKb of NH3=4.745 and log103=0.477)
In Dumas' method, 292 mg of an organic compound released 50 mL of nitrogen gas (N2) at 300 K temperature and 715 mm Hg pressure. The percentage composition of 'N' in the organic compound is __________ %. (Nearest integer) (Aqueous tension at 300 K = 15 mm Hg)
Butane reacts with oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and water following the equation given below:
C4H10(g)+213O2(g)→4CO2(g)+5H2O(l)
If 174.0 kg of butane is mixed with 320.0 kg of O2, the volume of water formed in litres is __________. (Nearest integer) [Given: (a) Molar mass of C, H, O are 12, 1, 16 g mol−1 respectively, (b) Density of water = 1 g mL−1]
The number of paramagnetic metal complex species among [Co(NH3)6]3+, [Co(C2O4)3]3−, [MnCl6]3−, [Mn(CN)6]3−, [CoF6]3−, [Fe(CN)6]3− and [FeF6]3− with same number of unpaired electrons is __________.
Identify the structure of the final product (D) in the following sequence of reactions:
Ph−CO−CH3PCl5,ΔA3eq.NaNH2/NH3BAcidifyC1.B2H6;2.H2O2/OH−D
Total number of sp2 hybridised carbon atoms in product D is __________.
A bag contains 19 unbiased coins and one coin with head on both sides. One coin drawn at random is tossed and head turns up. If the probability that the drawn coin was unbiased, is nm, gcd(m,n)=1, then n2−m2 is equal to:
Let the length of a latus rectum of an ellipse a2x2+b2y2=1 be 10. If its eccentricity is the minimum value of the function f(t)=t2+t+1211, t∈R, then a2+b2 is equal to:
If the equation of the line passing through the point (0,−21,0) and perpendicular to the lines r=λ(i^+aj^+bk^) and r=(i^−j^−6k^)+μ(−bi^+aj^+5k^) is −2x−1=dy+4=−4z−c, then a+b+c+d is equal to:
Let p be the number of all triangles that can be formed by joining the vertices of a regular polygon P of n sides and q be the number of all quadrilaterals that can be formed by joining the vertices of P. If p+q=126, then the eccentricity of the ellipse 16x2+ny2=1 is:
Consider the lines L1:x−1=y−2=z and L2:x−2=y=z−1. Let the feet of the perpendiculars from the point P(5,1,−3) on the lines L1 and L2 be Q and R respectively. If the area of the triangle PQR is A, then 4A2 is equal to:
Let e1 and e2 be the eccentricities of the ellipse b2x2+25y2=1 and the hyperbola 16x2−b2y2=1, respectively. If b<5 and e1e2=1, then the eccentricity of the ellipse having its axes along the coordinate axes and passing through all four foci (two of the ellipse and two of the hyperbola) is:
Let the system of equations x+5y−z=1, 4x+3y−3z=7, 24x+y+λz=μ; λ,μ∈R, have infinitely many solutions. Then the number of the solutions of this system, if x,y,z are integers and satisfy 7≤x+y+z≤77, is
If the sum of the second, fourth and sixth terms of a G.P. of positive terms is 21 and the sum of its eighth, tenth and twelfth terms is 15309, then the sum of its first nine terms is:
For t>−1, let αt and βt be the roots of the equation ((t+2)1/7−1)x2+((t+2)1/6−1)x+((t+2)1/21−1)=0. If t→−1+limαt=a and t→−1+limβt=b, then 72(a+b)2 is equal to __________.
Let the lengths of the transverse and conjugate axes of a hyperbola in standard form be 2a and 2b, respectively, and one focus and the corresponding directrix of this hyperbola be (−5,0) and 5x+9=0, respectively. If the product of the focal distances of a point (α,25) on the hyperbola is p, then 4p is equal to __________.
Take the 7 April 2025 Shift 2 paper as a timed mock and Jarvis marks it, then tells you which errors were conceptual gaps, which were silly mistakes, and which pattern you have now repeated. Step-by-step solutions for every question included.