JEE Main 30 January 2023 Shift 1 Question Paper with Answers
30 January 2023 · January session · 90 questions
The complete JEE Main 30 January 2023 Shift 1 paper — all 90 questions with the correct answer for each, tagged to the chapter it tests. Free to read, no account needed.
The magnetic moments associated with two closely wound circular coils A and B of radius rA=10 cm and rB=20 cm respectively are equal if: (Where NA,IA and NB,IB are number of turn and current of A and B respectively)
(A)4NAIA=NBIB
(B)NA=2NB
(C)NAIA=4NBIB
(D)2NAIA=NBIB
Q2·PhysicsSingle correct
The figure represents the momentum time (p-t) curve for a particle moving along an axis under the influence of the force. Identify the regions on the graph where the magnitude of the force is maximum and minimum respectively? If (t3−t2)<t1
Two isolated metallic solid spheres of radii R and 2R are charged such that both have same charge density σ. The spheres are then connected by a thin conducting wire. If the new charge density of the bigger sphere is σ′, the ratio σσ′ is:
A person has been using spectacles of power −1.0 dioptre for distant vision and a separate reading glass of power 2.0 dioptres. What is the least distance of distinct vision for this person:
(A)40 cm
(B)30 cm
(C)10 cm
(D)50 cm
Q5·PhysicsSingle correct
A small object at rest, absorbs a light pulse of power 20 mW and duration 300 ns. Assuming speed of light as 3×108 m/s, the momentum of the object becomes equal to:
(A)3×10−17 kg m/s
(B)2×10−17 kg m/s
(C)1×10−17 kg m/s
(D)0.5×10−17 kg m/s
Q6·PhysicsSingle correct
Match Column-I (x-t graphs) with Column-II (v-t graphs). Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Column-I (x-t graphs)
Column-II (v-t graphs)
A.see figure
I.see figure
B.see figure
II.see figure
C.see figure
III.see figure
D.see figure
IV.see figure
(A)A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(B)A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(C)A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(D)A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
Q7·PhysicsSingle correct
The pressure (P) and temperature (T) relationship of an ideal gas obeys the equation PT2= constant. The volume expansion coefficient of the gas will be:
(A)T23
(B)T33
(C)3T2
(D)T3
Q8·PhysicsSingle correct
Heat is given to an ideal gas in an isothermal process. A. Internal energy of the gas will decrease. B. Internal energy of the gas will increase. C. Internal energy of the gas will not change. D. The gas will do positive work. E. The gas will do negative work. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A)C and D only
(B)C and E only
(C)A and E only
(D)B and D only
Q9·PhysicsSingle correct
If the gravitational field in the space is given as (−r2K). Taking the reference point to be at r=2 cm with gravitational potential V=10 J/kg. Find the gravitational potential at r=3 cm in SI unit (Given that K=6 J cm/kg):
In a series LR circuit with XL=R, power factor is P1. If a capacitor of capacitance C with XC=XL is added to the circuit the power factor becomes P2. The ratio of P1 to P2 will be:
(A)1:3
(B)1:2
(C)1:2
(D)1:1
Q11·PhysicsSingle correct
As per the given figure, a small ball P slides down the quadrant of a circle and hits the other ball Q of equal mass which is initially at rest. Neglecting the effect of friction and assume the collision to be elastic, the velocity of ball Q after collision will be: (g=10m/s2)
(A)0
(B)4 m/s
(C)2 m/s
(D)0.25 m/s
Q12·PhysicsSingle correct
A ball of mass 200 g rests on a vertical post of height 20 m. A bullet of mass 10 g, travelling in horizontal direction, hits the centre of the ball. After collision both travels independently. The ball hits the ground at a distance 30 m and the bullet at a distance of 120 m from the foot of the post. The value of initial velocity of the bullet will be (if g=10m/s2):
(A)360 m/s
(B)400 m/s
(C)60 m/s
(D)120 m/s
Q13·PhysicsSingle correct
The output waveform of the given logical circuit for the following inputs A and B as shown below, is
(A)(1)
(B)(2)
(C)(3)
(D)(4)
Q14·PhysicsSingle correct
The charge flowing in a conductor changes with time as Q(t)=αt−βt2+γt3, where α,β and γ are constants. Minimum value of current is:
(A)α−γ3β2
(B)α−3βγ2
(C)α−3γβ2
(D)β−3γα2
Q15·PhysicsSingle correct
Choose the correct relationship between Poisson ratio (σ), bulk modulus (K) and modulus of rigidity (η) of a given solid object:
(A)σ=6K+2η3K+2η
(B)σ=6K+2η3K−2η
(C)σ=3K−2η6K+2η
(D)σ=3K−2η6K−2η
Q16·PhysicsSingle correct
Speed of an electron in Bohr's 7th orbit for Hydrogen atom is 3.6×106 m/s. The corresponding speed of the electron in 3rd orbit, in m/s is:
A massless square loop, of wire of resistance 10Ω, supporting a mass of 1 g, hangs vertically with one of its sides in a uniform magnetic field of 103 G, directed outwards in the shaded region. A dc voltage V is applied to the loop. For what value of V, the magnetic force will exactly balance the weight of the supporting mass of 1 g? (If sides of the loop =10 cm, g=10ms−2)
Electric field in a certain region is given by E=(x2Ai^+y3Bj^). The SI unit of A and B are:
(A)Nm3C−1;Nm2C−1
(B)Nm2C−1;Nm3C−1
(C)Nm3C;Nm2C
(D)Nm2C;Nm3C
Q19·PhysicsSingle correct
The height of liquid column raised in a capillary tube of certain radius when dipped in liquid A vertically is 5 cm. If the tube is dipped in a similar manner in another liquid B of surface tension and density double the values of liquid A, the height of liquid column raised in liquid B would be _________ m
(A)0.05
(B)0.10
(C)0.20
(D)0.5
Q20·PhysicsSingle correct
A sinusoidal carrier voltage is amplitude modulated. The resultant amplitude modulated wave has maximum and minimum amplitude of 120 V and 80 V respectively. The amplitude of each sideband is:
The general displacement of a simple harmonic oscillator is x=Asinωt. Let T be its time period. The slope of its potential energy (U) - time (t) curve will be maximum when t=βT. The value of β is
Q22·PhysicsNumerical
A thin uniform rod of length 2 m, cross sectional area 'A' and density 'd' is rotated about an axis passing through the centre and perpendicular to its length with angular velocity ω. If value of ω in terms of its rotational kinetic energy E is AdαE then value of α is
Q23·PhysicsNumerical
A horse rider covers half the distance with 5 m/s speed. The remaining part of the distance was travelled with speed 10 m/s for half the time and with speed 15 m/s for other half of the time. The mean speed of the rider averaged over the whole time of motion is 7x m/s. The value of x is
As per the given figure, if dtdI=−1 A/s then the value of VAB at this instant will be _________ V.
Q25·PhysicsNumerical
A point source of light is placed at the centre of curvature of a hemispherical surface. The source emits a power of 24 W. The radius of curvature of hemisphere is 10 cm and the inner surface is completely reflecting. The force on the hemisphere due to the light falling on it is _________ ×10−8 N
Q26·PhysicsNumerical
In the following circuit, the magnitude of current I1 is _________ A.
Q27·PhysicsNumerical
In a screw gauge, there are 100 divisions on the circular scale and the main scale moves by 0.5 mm on a complete rotation of the circular scale. The zero of circular scale lies 6 divisions below the line of graduation when two studs are brought in contact with each other. When a wire is placed between the studs, 4 linear scale divisions are clearly visible while 46th division the circular scale coincide with the reference line. The diameter of the wire is _________ ×10−2 mm
In Young's double slit experiment, two slits S1 and S2 are 'd' distance apart and the separation from slits to screen is D (as shown in figure). Now if two transparent slabs of equal thickness 0.1 mm but refractive index 1.51 and 1.55 are introduced in the path of beam (λ=4000 Å) from S1 and S2 respectively. The central bright fringe spot will shift by _________ number of fringes.
A capacitor of capacitance 900μF is charged by a 100 V battery. The capacitor is disconnected from the battery and connected to another uncharged identical capacitor such that one plate of uncharged capacitor connected to positive plate and another plate of uncharged capacitor connected to negative plate of the charged capacitor. The loss of energy in this process is measured as x×10−2 J. The value of x is
Q30·PhysicsNumerical
In an experiment for estimating the value of focal length of converging mirror, image of an object placed at 40 cm from the pole of the mirror is formed at distance 120 cm from the pole of the mirror. These distances are measured with a modified scale in which there are 20 small divisions in 1 cm. The value of error in measurement of focal length of the mirror is K1 cm. The value of K is
Chemistry — JEE Main 30 January 2023 Shift 1
Q31·ChemistrySingle correct
Lithium aluminium hydride can be prepared from the reaction of
(A)LiH and Al(OH)3
(B)LiH and Al2Cl6
(C)LiCl and Al2H6
(D)LiCl, Al and H2
Q32·ChemistrySingle correct
Amongst the following compounds, which one is an antacid?
(A)Terfenadine
(B)Meprobamate
(C)Brompheniramine
(D)Ranitidine
Q33·ChemistrySingle correct
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): In expensive scientific instruments, silica gel is kept in watch-glasses or in semipermeable membrane bags.
Reason (R): Silica gel adsorbs moisture from air via adsorption, thus protects the instrument from water corrosion (rusting) and/or prevents malfunctioning.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(B)(A) is false but (R) is true
(C)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(D)(A) is true but (R) is false
Q34·ChemistrySingle correct
Match List I (atomic number) with List II (block of periodic table). Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
What is the correct order of acidity of the protons marked A-D in the given compounds?
(A)HC>HA>HD>HB
(B)HD>HC>HB>HA
(C)HC>HD>HB>HA
(D)HC>HD>HA>HB
Q36·ChemistrySingle correct
Which of the following compounds would give the following set of qualitative analysis? (i) Fehling's Test: Positive (ii) Na fusion extract upon treatment with sodium nitroprusside gives a blood red colour but not prussian blue.
(A)(1)
(B)(2)
(C)(3)
(D)(4)
Q37·ChemistrySingle correct
The major products 'A' and 'B', respectively formed when the alkene shown reacts with cold dilute H2SO4 (giving A) and with H2SO4 at 80∘C (giving B), are
(A)(1)
(B)(2)
(C)(3)
(D)(4)
Q38·ChemistrySingle correct
During the qualitative analysis of SO32− using dilute H2SO4, SO2 gas is evolved which turns K2Cr2O7 solution (acidified with dilute H2SO4):
(A)green
(B)blue
(C)red
(D)black
Q39·ChemistrySingle correct
In the wet tests for identification of various cations by precipitation, which transition element cation doesn't belong to group IV in qualitative inorganic analysis?
(A)Ni2+
(B)Zn2+
(C)Co2+
(D)Fe3+
Q40·ChemistrySingle correct
For OF2 molecule consider the following: A. Number of lone pairs on oxygen is 2. B. FOF angle is less than 104.5°. C. Oxidation state of O is −2. D. Molecule is bent 'V' shaped. E. Molecular geometry is linear. correct options are:
(A)A, C, D only
(B)C, D, E only
(C)A, B, D only
(D)B, E, A only
Q41·ChemistrySingle correct
Caprolactam when heated at high temperature in presence of water, gives
Benzyl isocyanide can be obtained by the reactions shown. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A)A and D
(B)Only B
(C)B and C
(D)A and B
Q43·ChemistrySingle correct
Formation of photochemical smog involves the following reaction in which A, B and C are respectively. i. NO2hνA+B ii. B+O2→C iii. A+C→NO2+O2. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A)O,N2O&NO
(B)O,NO&NO3−
(C)NO,O&O3
(D)N,O2&O3
Q44·ChemistrySingle correct
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Ketoses give Seliwanoff's test faster than Aldoses.
Reason (R): Ketoses undergo β-elimination followed by formation of furfural.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A)(A) is false but (R) is true
(B)(A) is true but (R) is false
(C)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(D)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Q45·ChemistrySingle correct
Match List I (molecules/ions) with List II (number of lone pairs of electrons on the central atom). Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
List I (molecules/ions)
List II (No. of lone pairs of e⁻ on central atom)
A.IF7
I.Three
B.ICl4−
II.One
C.XeF6
III.Two
D.XeF2
IV.Zero
(A)A-II, B-III, C-II, D-I
(B)A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(C)A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(D)A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Q46·ChemistrySingle correct
To inhibit the growth of tumours, identify the compounds used from the following: A. EDTA B. Coordination Compounds of Pt C. D-Penicillamine D. Cis-Platin. Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
(A)B and D Only
(B)C and D Only
(C)A and C Only
(D)A and B Only
Q47·ChemistrySingle correct
The alkaline earth metal sulphate(s) which are readily soluble in water is/are: A. BeSO4 B. MgSO4 C. CaSO4 D. SrSO4 E. BaSO4. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A)B Only
(B)A and B
(C)B and C
(D)A only
Q48·ChemistrySingle correct
Which of the following is correct order of ligand field strength?
(A)CO < en < NH3 < C2O42− < S2−
(B)en < CO < S2− < C2O42−
(C)S2− < C2O42− < NH3 < en < CO
(D)S2− < NH3 < en < CO < C2O42−
Q49·ChemistrySingle correct
Match List I (reactions) with List II (name of reaction). Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
List I (Reactions)
List II (Name of reaction)
A.see figure
I.Fittig reaction
B.see figure
II.Wurtz Fittig reaction
C.see figure
III.Finkelstein reaction
D.see figure
IV.Sandmeyer reaction
(A)A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(B)A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(C)A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(D)A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
Q50·ChemistrySingle correct
In the extraction of copper, its sulphide ore is heated in a reverberatory furnace after mixing with silica to:
(A)remove FeO as FeSiO3
(B)decrease the temperature needed for roasting of Cu2S
(C)separate CuO as CuSiO3
(D)remove calcium as CaSiO3
Q51·ChemistryNumerical
600 mL of 0.01 M HCl is mixed with 400 mL of 0.01 M H2SO4. The pH of the mixture is _________ ×10−2. (Nearest integer) [Given log 2 = 0.30, log 3 = 0.48, log 5 = 0.69, log 7 = 0.84, log 11 = 1.04]
Q52·ChemistryNumerical
The energy of one mole of photons of radiation of frequency 2×1012 Hz in J mol−1 is _________. (Nearest integer) [Given: h = 6.626×10−34 Js, NA = 6.022×1023 mol−1]
Q53·ChemistryNumerical
Consider the cell Pt(s)|H2(g, 1 atm)|H+(aq, 1M)||Fe3+(aq), Fe2+(aq)|Pt(s). When the potential of the cell is 0.712 V at 298 K, the ratio [Fe2+]/[Fe3+] is _________ (Nearest integer). Given: Fe3+ + e− = Fe2+, E0 = 0.771 V, F2.303RT=0.06 V
Q54·ChemistryNumerical
The number of electrons involved in the reduction of permanganate to manganese dioxide in acidic medium is
Q55·ChemistryNumerical
A 300 mL bottle of soft drink has 0.2 M CO2 dissolved in it. Assuming CO2 behaves as an ideal gas, the volume of the dissolved CO2 at STP is _________ mL. (Nearest integer) Given: At STP, molar volume of an ideal gas is 22.7 L mol−1
A trisubstituted compound 'A', C10H12O2 gives neutral FeCl3 test positive. Treatment of compound 'A' with NaOH and CH3Br gives C11H14O2, with hydroiodic acid gives methyl iodide and with hot conc. NaOH gives a compound B, C10H12O2. Compound 'A' also decolourises alkaline KMnO4. The number of π bond/s present in the compound 'A' is
Q57·ChemistryNumerical
If compound A reacts with B following first order kinetics with rate constant 2.011×10−3 s−1. The time taken by A (in seconds) to reduce from 7 g to 2 g will be _________ (Nearest Integer) [log 5 = 0.698, log 7 = 0.845, log 2 = 0.301]
Q58·ChemistryNumerical
A solution containing 2 g of a non-volatile solute in 20 g of water boils at 373.52 K. The molecular mass of the solute is _________ g mol−1. (Nearest integer) Given, Water boils at 373 K, Kb for water = 0.52 K kg mol−1
Q59·ChemistryNumerical
When 2 litre of ideal gas expands isothermally into vacuum to a total volume of 6 litre, the change in internal energy is _________ J. (Nearest integer)
Q60·ChemistryNumerical
Some amount of dichloromethane (CH2Cl2) is added to 671.141 mL of chloroform (CHCl3) to prepare 2.6×10−3 M solution of CH2Cl2 (DCM). The concentration of DCM is _________ ppm (by mass). Given: atomic mass C = 12, H = 1, Cl = 35.5, density of CHCl3 = 1.49 g cm−3
Mathematics — JEE Main 30 January 2023 Shift 1
Q61·MathematicsSingle correct
A straight line cuts off the intercepts OA=a and OB=b on the positive directions of x-axis and y-axis respectively. If the perpendicular from origin O to this line makes an angle of 6π with positive direction of y-axis and the area of △OAB is 3983, then a2−b2 is equal to:
(A)3392
(B)3196
(C)98
(D)196
Q62·MathematicsSingle correct
The minimum number of elements that must be added to the relation R={(a,b),(b,c)} on the set {a,b,c} so that it becomes symmetric and transitive is:
(A)3
(B)4
(C)5
(D)7
Q63·MathematicsSingle correct
If an unbiased die, marked with −2,−1,0,1,2,3 on its faces, is thrown five times, then the probability that the product of the outcomes is positive, is:
(A)2592881
(B)28827
(C)2592440
(D)2592521
Q64·MathematicsSingle correct
If a,b,c are three non-zero vectors and n^ is a unit vector perpendicular to c such that a=αb−n^, (α=0) and b⋅c=12, then ∣c×(a×b)∣ is equal to:
(A)9
(B)15
(C)6
(D)12
Q65·MathematicsSingle correct
Among the statements: (S1) ((p∨q)⇒r)⇔(p⇒r) and (S2) ((p∨q)⇒r)⇔((p⇒r)∨(q⇒r))
(A)only (S2) is a tautology
(B)only (S1) is a tautology
(C)neither (S1) nor (S2) is a tautology
(D)both (S1) and (S2) are tautologies
Q66·MathematicsSingle correct
If P(h,k) be a point on the parabola x=4y2, which is nearest to the point Q(0,33), then the distance of P from the directrix of the parabola y2=4(x+y) is equal to:
(A)2
(B)6
(C)8
(D)4
Q67·MathematicsSingle correct
Let y=x+2, 4y=3x+6 and 3y=4x+1 be three tangent lines to the circle (x−h)2+(y−k)2=r2. Then h+k is equal to:
(A)5(1+2)
(B)52
(C)6
(D)5
Q68·MathematicsSingle correct
The number of points on the curve y=54x5−135x4−70x3+180x2+210x at which the normal lines are parallel to x+90y+2=0 is:
(A)4
(B)2
(C)0
(D)3
Q69·MathematicsSingle correct
If an=4n2−16n+15−2, then a1+a2+⋯+a25 is equal to:
(A)14752
(B)13849
(C)14150
(D)14451
Q70·MathematicsSingle correct
If tan15°+tan75°1+tan105°1+tan195°=2a, then the value of (a+a1) is:
(A)2
(B)4−23
(C)5−233
(D)4
Q71·MathematicsSingle correct
If the solution of the equation logcosxcotx+4logsinxtanx=1, x∈(0,2π), is sin−1(2α+β), where α and β are integers, then α+β is equal to:
(A)5
(B)6
(C)4
(D)3
Q72·MathematicsSingle correct
Let the system of linear equations x+y+kz=2, 2x+3y−z=1, 3x+4y+2z=k have infinitely many solutions. Then the system (k+1)x+(2k−1)y=7, (2k+1)x+(k+5)y=10 has:
(A)infinitely many solutions
(B)unique solution satisfying x−y=1
(C)unique solution satisfying x+y=1
(D)no solution
Q73·MathematicsSingle correct
The line l1 passes through the point (2,6,2) and is perpendicular to the plane 2x+y−2z=10. Then the shortest distance between the line l1 and the line 2x+1=−3y+4=2z is:
(A)311
(B)319
(C)7
(D)9
Q74·MathematicsSingle correct
Let A=(mpnq), d=∣A∣=0 and ∣A−d(AdjA)∣=0. Then
(A)1+d2=m2+q2
(B)1+d2=(m+q)2
(C)(1+d)2=m2+q2
(D)(1+d)2=(m+q)2
Q75·MathematicsSingle correct
If [t] denotes the greatest integer ≤t, then the value of e3(e−1)∫12x2e[x3]+[x4]dx is:
(A)e8−1
(B)e7−1
(C)e8−e
(D)e9−e
Q76·MathematicsSingle correct
Let a unit vector OP make angles α,β,γ with the positive directions of the co-ordinate axes OX, OY, OZ respectively, where β∈(0,2π). If OP is perpendicular to the plane through points (1,2,3),(2,3,4) and (1,5,7), then which one of the following is true?
(A)α∈(0,2π) and γ∈(0,2π)
(B)α∈(0,2π) and γ∈(2π,π)
(C)α∈(2π,π) and γ∈(2π,π)
(D)α∈(2π,π) and γ∈(0,2π)
Q77·MathematicsSingle correct
The coefficient of x301 in (1+x)500+x(1+x)499+x2(1+x)498+⋯+x500 is:
(A)500C300
(B)501C200
(C)501C302
(D)500C301
Q78·MathematicsSingle correct
Let the solution curve y=y(x) of the differential equation dxdy−(1+x6)3/23x5tan−1(x3)y=2xexp{1+x6x3−tan−1x3} pass through the origin. Then y(1) is equal to:
(A)exp(424+π)
(B)exp(421−π)
(C)exp(42π−4)
(D)exp(424−π)
Q79·MathematicsSingle correct
If the coefficient of x15 in the expansion of (ax3+bx1/31)15 is equal to the coefficient of x−15 in the expansion of (ax1/3−bx31)15, where a and b are positive real numbers, then for each such ordered pair (a,b):
(A)a=3
(B)ab=1
(C)a=b
(D)a=3b
Q80·MathematicsSingle correct
Suppose f:R→(0,∞) be a differentiable function such that 5f(x+y)=f(x)⋅f(y), ∀x,y∈R. If f(3)=320, then ∑n=05f(n) is equal to:
(A)6875
(B)6525
(C)6825
(D)6575
Q81·MathematicsNumerical
Let z=1+i and z1=zˉ(1−z)+z11+izˉ. Then π12arg(z1) is equal to
Q82·MathematicsNumerical
If λ1<λ2 are two values of λ such that the angle between the planes P1:r⋅(3i^−5j^+k^)=7 and P2:r⋅(λi^+j^−3k^)=9 is sin−1(526), then the square of the length of perpendicular from the point (38λ1,10λ2,2) to the plane P1 is
Q83·MathematicsNumerical
Let α be the area of the larger region bounded by the curve y2=8x and the lines y=x and x=2, which lies in the first quadrant. Then the value of 3α is equal to
Q84·MathematicsNumerical
Let ∑n=0∞(n!)((2n)!)n3((2n)!)+(2n−1)(n!)=ae+eb+c, where a,b,c∈Z and e=∑n=0∞n!1. Then a2−b+c is equal to
Q85·MathematicsNumerical
If the equation of the plane passing through the point (1,1,2) and perpendicular to the line x−3y+2z−1=0=4x−y+z is Ax+By+Cz=1, then 140(C−B+A) is equal to
Q86·MathematicsNumerical
Number of 4-digit numbers (the repetition of digits is allowed) which are made using the digits 1,2,3 and 5, and are divisible by 15, is equal to
Q87·MathematicsNumerical
Let f1(x)=2x+33x+2, x∈R−{2−3}. For n≥2, define fn(x)=f1 of fn−1(x). If f5(x)=bx+aax+b, gcd(a,b)=1, then a+b is equal to
Q88·MathematicsNumerical
The mean and variance of 7 observations are 8 and 16 respectively. If one observation 14 is omitted and a and b are respectively mean and variance of remaining 6 observation, then a+3b−5 is equal to
Q89·MathematicsNumerical
Let S={1,2,3,4,5,6}. Then the number of one-one functions f:S→P(S), where P(S) denote the power set of S, such that f(n)⊂f(m) where n<m is
Take the 30 January 2023 Shift 1 paper as a timed mock and Jarvis marks it, then tells you which errors were conceptual gaps, which were silly mistakes, and which pattern you have now repeated. Step-by-step solutions for every question included.