JEE Main 10 April 2023 Shift 1 Question Paper with Answers
10 April 2023 · April session · 90 questions
The complete JEE Main 10 April 2023 Shift 1 paper — all 90 questions with the correct answer for each, tagged to the chapter it tests. Free to read, no account needed.
Physics
30
Chemistry
30
Mathematics
30
Physics — JEE Main 10 April 2023 Shift 1
Q1·PhysicsSingle correct
A physical quantity P is given as P=cda2b3. The percentage error in the measurement of a, b, c and d are 1%,2%,3% and 4% respectively. The percentage error in the measurement of quantity P will be
(A)13%
(B)14%
(C)15%
(D)16%
Q2·PhysicsSingle correct
Assuming the earth to be a sphere of uniform mass density, the weight of a body at a depth 2R from the surface of earth, if its weight on the surface of earth is 200 N, will be: (Given R = Radius of earth)
(A)400 N
(B)500 N
(C)300 N
(D)100 N
Q3·PhysicsSingle correct
A zener diode of power rating 1.6 W is to be used as voltage regulator. If the zener diode has a breakdown of 8V and it has to regulate voltage fluctuating between 3V and 10 V, the value of resistance R for safe operation of diode will be:
(A)13.3Ω
(B)12Ω
(C)10Ω
(D)11Ω
Q4·PhysicsSingle correct
The range of the projectile projected at an angle of 15° with horizontal is 50 m. If the projectile is projected with same velocity at an angle of 45° with horizontal, then the range will be
(A)50 m
(B)502 m
(C)100 m
(D)1002 m
Q5·PhysicsSingle correct
A carrier wave of amplitude 15V is modulated by a sinusoidal base band signal of amplitude 3V. The ratio of maximum amplitude to minimum amplitude in an amplitude modulated wave is:
(A)2
(B)23
(C)5
(D)21
Q6·PhysicsSingle correct
The angular momentum for the electron in Bohr's orbit is L. If the electron is assumed to revolve in second orbit of hydrogen atom, then the change in angular momentum will be:
(A)2L
(B)zero
(C)L
(D)2L
Q7·PhysicsSingle correct
A particle of mass m moving with velocity v collides with a stationary particle of mass 2m. After collision, they stick together and continue to move together with velocity
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: If the number of turns in the coil of a moving coil galvanometer is doubled then the current sensitivity becomes double.
Statement II: Increasing current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer by only increasing the number of turns in the coil will also increase its voltage sensitivity in the same ratio. In the light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A)Statement I is true but Statement II is true
(B)Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(C)Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(D)Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Q9·PhysicsSingle correct
Match List I (degrees of freedom) with List II (type of gas). Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
List I
List II
A.3 Translational degrees of freedom
I.Monoatomic gases
B.3 Translational, 2 rotational degrees of freedom
II.Polyatomic gases
C.3 Translational, 2 rotational and 1 vibrational degrees of freedom
III.Rigid diatomic gases
D.3 Translational, 3 rotational and more than one vibrational degrees of freedom
IV.Nonrigid diatomic gases
(A)(A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(B)(A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(C)(A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(D)(A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
Q10·PhysicsSingle correct
The equivalent resistance of the circuit shown below between points a and b is:
(A)24Ω
(B)3.2Ω
(C)20Ω
(D)16Ω
Q11·PhysicsSingle correct
Consider two containers A and B containing monoatomic gases at the same Pressure (P), Volume (V) and Temperature (T). The gas in A is compressed isothermally to 81 of its original volume while the gas in B is compressed adiabatically to 81 of its original volume. The ratio of final pressure of gas in B to that of gas in A is:
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Maximum power is dissipated in a circuit containing an inductor, a capacitor and a resistor connected in series with an AC source, when resonance occurs.
Statement II: Maximum power is dissipated in a circuit containing pure resistor due to zero phase difference between current and voltage.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A)Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(B)Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(C)Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(D)Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Q13·PhysicsSingle correct
Two satellites of masses m and 3m revolve around the earth in circular orbits of radii r and 3r respectively. The ratio of orbital speeds of the satellites respectively is:
(A)1 : 1
(B)2 : 3
(C)3:1
(D)9 : 1
Q14·PhysicsSingle correct
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Pressure in a reservoir of water is same at all points at the same level of water.
Statement II: The pressure applied to enclosed water is transmitted in all directions equally.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
An object is placed at a distance of 12 cm in front of a plane mirror. The virtual and erect image is formed by the mirror. Now the mirror is moved by 4 cm towards the stationary object. The distance by which the position of image would be shifted, will be:
(A)4 cm towards mirror
(B)8 cm towards mirror
(C)8 cm away from mirror
(D)4 cm away from mirror
Q18·PhysicsSingle correct
The de Broglie wavelength of a molecule in a gas at room temperature (300 K) is λ1. If the temperature of the gas is increased to 600 K, then the de Broglie wavelength of the same gas molecule becomes
A particle executes S.H.M. of amplitude A along x-axis. At t=0, the position of the particle is x=2A and it moves along positive x-axis. The displacement of particle in time t i.e. x=Asin(ωt+δ), then the value of δ will be:
(A)6π
(B)3π
(C)4π
(D)2π
Q20·PhysicsSingle correct
The position-time graphs for two students A and B returning from the school to their homes are shown in figure. [Conclusions: (A) A lives closer to the school; (B) B lives closer to the school; (C) A takes lesser time to reach home; (D) A travels faster than B; (E) B travels faster than A.] Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Unpolarised light of intensity 32Wm−2 passes through the combination of three polaroids such that the pass axis of the last polaroid is perpendicular to that of the pass axis of first polaroid. If intensity of emerging light is 3Wm−2, then the angle between pass axis of first two polaroids is _________ °.
Q22·PhysicsNumerical
A closed circular tube of average radius 15 cm, whose inner walls are rough, is kept in vertical plane. A block of mass 1 kg just fits inside the tube. The speed of block is 22 m/s when it is introduced at the top of tube. After completing five oscillations, the block stops at the bottom region of tube. The work done by the tube on the block is _________ J. [Given g=10 m/s2]
Q23·PhysicsNumerical
If the earth suddenly shrinks to 641th of its original volume with its mass remaining the same, the period of rotation of earth becomes x24 h. The value of x is _________.
The current required to be passed through a solenoid of 15 cm length and 60 turns in order to demagnetise a bar magnet of magnetic intensity 2.4×103 Am−1 is _________ A.
A 1m long metal rod XY completes the circuit as shown in figure. The plane of the circuit is perpendicular to the magnetic field of flux density 0.15 T. If the resistance of the circuit is 5Ω, the force needed to move the rod in direction, as indicated, with a constant speed of 4 m/s will be _________ ×10−3 N.
A transverse harmonic wave on a string is given by y(x,t)=5sin(6t+0.003x) where x and y are in cm and t in sec. The wave velocity is _________ ms−1.
Q27·PhysicsNumerical
The decay constant for a radioactive nuclide is 1.5×10−5 s−1. Atomic weight of the substance is 60 g mole−1, (NA=6×1023). The activity of 1.0 µg of the substance is _________ ×1010 Bq.
Three concentric spherical metallic shells X, Y and Z of radius a, b and c respectively [a<b<c] have surface charge densities σ,−σ and σ respectively. The shells X and Z are at same potential. If the radii of X and Y are 2 cm and 3 cm respectively, the radius of shell Z is _________ cm.
Q29·PhysicsNumerical
10 resistors each of resistance 10Ω can be connected in such a way as to get maximum and minimum equivalent resistance. The ratio of maximum and minimum equivalent resistance will be _________.
Q30·PhysicsNumerical
Two wires each of radius 0.2 cm and negligible mass, one made of steel and other made of brass are loaded as shown in the figure. The elongation of the steel wire is _________ ×10−6 m. [Young's modulus for steel =2×1011 Nm−2 and g=10 ms−2]
Chemistry — JEE Main 10 April 2023 Shift 1
Q31·ChemistrySingle correct
Using column chromatography, mixture of two compounds 'A' and 'B' was separated. 'A' eluted first, this indicates 'B' has
(A)lower Rf, weaker adsorption
(B)high Rf, stronger adsorption
(C)high Rf, weaker adsorption
(D)low Rf, stronger adsorption
Q32·ChemistrySingle correct
Prolonged heating is avoided during the preparation of ferrous ammonium sulphate to
(A)prevent oxidation
(B)prevent reduction
(C)prevent hydrolysis
(D)prevent breaking
Q33·ChemistrySingle correct
Lime reacts exothermally with water to give 'A' which has low solubility in water. Aqueous solution of 'A' is often used for the test of CO2, a test in which insoluble B is formed. If B is further reacted with CO2 then soluble compound is formed. 'A' is
(A)Quick lime
(B)Slaked lime
(C)Lime water
(D)White lime
Q34·ChemistrySingle correct
The pair from the following pairs having both compounds with net non-zero dipole moment is
(A)Benzene, anisidine
(B)1,4-Dichlorobenzene, 1,3-Dichlorobenzene
(C)CH2Cl2, CHCl3
(D)cis-butene, trans-butene
Q35·ChemistrySingle correct
Match List-I (Industry) with List-II (Waste Generated). Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Isomeric amines with molecular formula C8H11N give the following tests. Isomer (P): can be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis. Isomer (Q): reacts with Hinsberg's reagent to give solid insoluble in NaOH. Isomer (R): reacts with HONO followed by β-naphthol in NaOH to give red dye. Isomers (P), (Q) and (R) respectively are
(A)(1)
(B)(2)
(C)(3)
(D)(4)
Q37·ChemistrySingle correct
Given below are two statements.
Statement I: Aqueous solution of K2Cr2O7 is preferred as a primary standard in volumetric analysis as compared to Na2Cr2O7 aqueous solution.
Statement II: K2Cr2O7 has a higher solubility in water than Na2Cr2O7.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A)Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(B)Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(C)Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(D)Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Q38·ChemistrySingle correct
The one that does not stabilize 2° and 3° structures of proteins is
(A)H-bonding
(B)–S-S-linkage
(C)–O-O-linkage
(D)van der Waals forces
Q39·ChemistrySingle correct
Given below are two reactions involved in the commercial production of dihydrogen (H2), carried out at temperatures T1 and T2 respectively: C(s)+H2O(g)T1CO(g)+H2(g) and CO(g)+H2O(g)T2CO2(g)+H2(g). The temperatures T1 and T2 are correctly related as
(A)T1>T2
(B)T1=T2
(C)T1=100 K, T2=1270 K
(D)T1<T2
Q40·ChemistrySingle correct
Which of the following statements are correct? (A) The M3+/M2+ reduction potential for iron is greater than manganese. (B) The higher oxidation states of first row d-block elements get stabilized by oxide ion. (C) Aqueous solution of Cr2+ can liberate hydrogen from dilute acid. (D) Magnetic moment of V2+ is observed between 4.4-5.2 BM. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A)(B), (C) only
(B)(C), (D) only
(C)(A), (B), (D) only
(D)(A), (B) only
Q41·ChemistrySingle correct
Which of the following is used as a stabilizer during the concentration of sulphide ores?
(A)Pine oils
(B)Xanthates
(C)Fatty acids
(D)Cresols
Q42·ChemistrySingle correct
The octahedral diamagnetic low spin complex among the following is
(A)[NiCl4]2−
(B)[CoCl4]−
(C)[CoF6]3−
(D)[Co(NH3)6]3+
Q43·ChemistrySingle correct
Given (A) 2CO(g)+O2(g)→2CO2(g), ΔH10=−x kJ mol−1 and (B) C(graphite)+O2(g)→CO2(g), ΔH20=−y kJ mol−1. The ΔH0 for the reaction C(graphite)+21O2(g)→CO(g) is
(A)2x−2y
(B)2x+2y
(C)22x−y
(D)2y−x
Q44·ChemistrySingle correct
The compound which does not exist is
(A)NaO2
(B)(NH4)2BeF4
(C)BeH2
(D)PbI4
Q45·ChemistrySingle correct
Match List I (Polymer) with List II (Type/Class). Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
List I (Polymer)
List II (Type/Class)
A.Nylon-2-Nylon-6
I.Thermosetting Polymer
B.Buna-N
II.Biodegradable Polymer
C.Urea-formaldehyde resin
III.Synthetic rubber
D.Dacron
IV.Polyester
(A)(A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
(B)(A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(C)(A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
(D)(A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
Q46·ChemistrySingle correct
The number of molecules and moles in 2.8375 litres of O2 at STP are respectively
(A)1.752 × 1022 and 0.250 mol
(B)1.505 × 1023 and 0.250 mol
(C)7.527 × 1022 and 0.125 mol
(D)7.527 × 1023 and 0.125 mol
Q47·ChemistrySingle correct
The enthalpy change for the adsorption process and micelle formation respectively are
(A)ΔHads<0 and ΔHmic>0
(B)ΔHads>0 and ΔHmic<0
(C)ΔHads<0 and ΔHmic<0
(D)ΔHads>0 and ΔHmic>0
Q48·ChemistrySingle correct
The major product 'P' formed in the given reaction is
Suitable reaction condition for preparation of Methyl phenyl ether is
(A)Ph – Br, MeO− Na+
(B)PhO− Na+, MeOH
(C)PhO− Na+, MeBr
(D)Benzene, MeBr
Q50·ChemistrySingle correct
Identify the correct order of reactivity for the following pairs towards the respective mechanism: (A) SN2 (B) SN1 (C) Electrophilic substitution (D) Nucleophilic substitution. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A)(A), (B) and (D) only
(B)(A), (B), (C) and (D)
(C)(A), (C) and (D) only
(D)(B), (C) and (D) only
Q51·ChemistryNumerical
The number of incorrect statement/s involving equilibria in physical process from the following is _________. (A) Equilibrium is possible only in a closed system at a given temperature. (B) Both the opposing processes occur at the same rate. (C) When equilibrium is attained at a given temperature, the value of all its parameters becomes equal. (D) For dissolution of solids in liquids, the solubility is constant at a given temperature.
Q52·ChemistryNumerical
The number of bent-shaped molecule/s from the following is _________: N3−, NO2+, I3−, SO2
Q53·ChemistryNumerical
A molecule undergoes two independent first order reactions whose respective half lives are 12 min and 3 min. If both the reactions are occurring then the time taken for the 50% consumption of the reactant is _________ min. (Nearest integer)
Q54·ChemistryNumerical
The number of incorrect statement/s about the black body from the following is _________. (A) Emit or absorb energy in the form of electromagnetic radiation. (B) Frequency distribution of the emitted radiation depends on temperature. (C) At a given temperature, intensity vs frequency curve passes through a maximum value. (D) The maximum of the intensity vs frequency curve is at a higher frequency at higher temperature compared to that at lower temperature.
Q55·ChemistryNumerical
In the following reactions, the total number of oxygen atoms in X and Y is _________. Na2O+H2O→2X; Cl2O7+H2O→2Y
Q56·ChemistryNumerical
FeO42−−2.2VFe3+−0.70VFe2+−0.45VFe0. EFeO42−/Fe2+0 is x×10−1 V. The value of x is _________.
Q57·ChemistryNumerical
The degree of dissociation of aqueous solution of weak monobasic acid is determined to be 0.3, then the observed freezing point will be _________ % higher than the expected/theoretical freezing point. (Nearest integer)
Q58·ChemistryNumerical
In potassium ferrocyanide, there are _________ pairs of electrons in the t2g set of orbitals.
Q59·ChemistryNumerical
At constant temperature a gas is at a pressure of 940.3 mm Hg. The pressure at which its volume decreases by 40% is _________ mm Hg. (Nearest Integer)
Q60·ChemistryNumerical
The sum of lone pairs present on the central atom of the interhalogen IF5 and IF7 is _________.
Mathematics — JEE Main 10 April 2023 Shift 1
Q61·MathematicsSingle correct
Let O be the origin and the position vector of the point P be −i^−2j^+3k^. If the position vectors of the points A, B and C are −2i^+j^−3k^, 2i^+4j^−2k^ and −4i^+2j^−k^ respectively, then the projection of the vector OP on a vector perpendicular to the vectors AB and AC is
(A)3
(B)38
(C)310
(D)37
Q62·MathematicsSingle correct
Let the ellipse E: x2+9y2=9 intersect the positive x- and y-axes at the points A and B respectively. Let the major axis of E be a diameter of the circle C. Let the line passing through A and B meet the circle C at the point P. If the area of the triangle with vertices A, P and the origin O is nm, where m and n are coprime, then m−n is equal to
(A)18
(B)16
(C)17
(D)15
Q63·MathematicsSingle correct
If f(x)=xloge(1234)−(tan1°)(tan1°)x+loge(123),x>0, then the least value of f(f(x))+f(f(x4)) is
(A)8
(B)4
(C)2
(D)0
Q64·MathematicsSingle correct
A square piece of tin of side 30 cm is to be made into a box without top by cutting a square from each corner and folding up the flaps to form a box. If the volume of the box is maximum, then its surface area (in cm2) is equal to
(A)675
(B)1025
(C)800
(D)900
Q65·MathematicsSingle correct
Let f be a differentiable function such that x2f(x)−x=4∫0xtf(t)dt, f(1)=32. Then 18f(3) is equal to
(A)160
(B)210
(C)180
(D)150
Q66·MathematicsSingle correct
A line segment AB of length λ moves such that the points A and B remain on the periphery of a circle of radius λ. Then the locus of the point, that divides the line segment AB in the ratio 2:3, is a circle of radius
(A)53λ
(B)719λ
(C)32λ
(D)519λ
Q67·MathematicsSingle correct
Let the complex number z=x+iy be such that 2z+i2z−3i is purely imaginary. If x+y2=0, then y4+y2−y is equal to:
(A)23
(B)34
(C)32
(D)43
Q68·MathematicsSingle correct
96cos33πcos332πcos334πcos338πcos3316π is equal to
(A)3
(B)2
(C)4
(D)1
Q69·MathematicsSingle correct
If A is a 3×3 matrix and ∣A∣=2, then 3adj(∣3A∣A2) is equal to
(A)311⋅610
(B)312⋅610
(C)310⋅611
(D)312⋅611
Q70·MathematicsSingle correct
The slope of tangent at any point (x,y) on a curve y=y(x) is 2xyx2+y2, x>0. If y(2)=0, then a value of y(8) is
(A)−23
(B)43
(C)23
(D)−42
Q71·MathematicsSingle correct
For the system of linear equations 2x−y+3z=5, 3x+2y−z=7, 4x+5y+αz=β, which of the following is NOT correct?
(A)The system has infinitely many solutions for α=−5 and β=9
(B)The system has a unique solution for α=−5 and β=8
(C)The system has infinitely many solutions for α=−6 and β=9
(D)The system is inconsistent for α=−5 and β=8
Q72·MathematicsSingle correct
Let N denotes the sum of the numbers obtained when two dice are rolled. If the probability that 2N<N! is nm, where m and n are coprime, then 4m−3n is equal to
(A)8
(B)16
(C)10
(D)12
Q73·MathematicsSingle correct
Let P be the point of intersection of the line 3x+3=1y+2=21−z and the plane x+y+z=2. If the distance of the point P from the plane 3x−4y+12z=32 is q, then q and 2q are the roots of the equation
(A)x2−18x−72=0
(B)x2+18x+72=0
(C)x2−18x+72=0
(D)x2+18x−72=0
Q74·MathematicsSingle correct
The negation of the statement (p∨q)∧(q∨(∼r)) is
(A)((∼p)∨r)∧(∼q)
(B)((∼p)∨(∼q))∧(∼r)
(C)((∼p)∨(∼q))∨(∼r)
(D)(p∨r)∧(∼q)
Q75·MathematicsSingle correct
If the coefficient of x7 in (ax−bx21)13 and the coefficient of x−5 in (ax+bx21)13 are equal, then a4b4 is equal to:
(A)44
(B)22
(C)11
(D)33
Q76·MathematicsSingle correct
Let two vertices of triangle ABC be (2,4,6) and (0,−2,−5), and its centroid be (2,1,−1). If the image of third vertex in the plane x+2y+4z=11 is (α,β,γ), then αβ+βγ+γα is equal to
(A)72
(B)74
(C)76
(D)70
Q77·MathematicsSingle correct
The shortest distance between the lines 1x+2=−2y=2z−5 and 1x−4=2y−1=0z+3 is
(A)6
(B)9
(C)7
(D)8
Q78·MathematicsSingle correct
If I(x)=∫esin2x(cosxsin2x−sinx)dx and I(0)=1, then I(3π) is equal to
(A)−21e43
(B)e43
(C)21e43
(D)−e43
Q79·MathematicsSingle correct
Let the first term a and the common ratio r of a geometric progression be positive integers. If the sum of squares of its first three terms is 33033, then the sum of these three terms is equal to
(A)231
(B)210
(C)220
(D)241
Q80·MathematicsSingle correct
An arc PQ of a circle subtends a right angle at its centre O. The mid point of the arc PQ is R. If OP=u, OR=v and OQ=αu+βv, then α,β2 are the roots of the equation
(A)x2−x−2=0
(B)3x2+2x−1=0
(C)x2+x−2=0
(D)3x2−2x−1=0
Q81·MathematicsNumerical
The coefficient of x7 in (1−x+2x3)10 is _________.
Let f:(−2,2)→R be defined by f(x)={x[x](x−1)[x],−2<x<0,0≤x<2 where [x] denotes the greatest integer function. If m and n respectively are the number of points in (−2,2) at which y=∣f(x)∣ is not continuous and not differentiable, then m+n is equal to _________.
Q83·MathematicsNumerical
The sum of all those terms, of the arithmetic progression 3,8,13,…,373, which are not divisible by 3, is equal to _________.
Q84·MathematicsNumerical
Let a common tangent to the curves y2=4x and (x−4)2+y2=16 touch the curves at the points P and Q. Then (PQ)2 is equal to _________.
Q85·MathematicsNumerical
The number of permutations, of the digits 1,2,3,…,7 without repetition, which neither contain the string 153 nor the string 2467, is _________.
Q86·MathematicsNumerical
Let a, b, c be three distinct positive real numbers such that (2a)logea=(bc)logeb and bloge2=alogec. Then 6a+5bc is equal to _________.
Q87·MathematicsNumerical
Let y=p(x) be the parabola passing through the points (−1,0),(0,1) and (1,0). If the area of the region {(x,y):(x+1)2+(y−1)2≤1,y≤p(x)} is A, then 12(π−4A) is equal to _________.
Q88·MathematicsNumerical
If the mean of the frequency distribution — Class: 0-10, 10-20, 20-30, 30-40, 40-50; Frequency: 2, 3, x, 5, 4 — is 28, then its variance is _________.
Q89·MathematicsNumerical
Some couples participated in a mixed doubles badminton tournament. If the number of matches played, so that no couple played in a match, is 840, then the total number of persons who participated in the tournament is _________.
Q90·MathematicsNumerical
The number of elements in the set {n∈Z:∣n2−10n+19∣<6} is _________.
Chapters tested in this paper
Open any chapter to practise every past-year question on that topic across all papers, and see how often it has actually appeared.
Take the 10 April 2023 Shift 1 paper as a timed mock and Jarvis marks it, then tells you which errors were conceptual gaps, which were silly mistakes, and which pattern you have now repeated. Step-by-step solutions for every question included.