JEE Main 12 April 2023 Shift 1 Question Paper with Answers
12 April 2023 · April session · 90 questions
The complete JEE Main 12 April 2023 Shift 1 paper — all 90 questions with the correct answer for each, tagged to the chapter it tests. Free to read, no account needed.
An ice cube has a bubble inside. When viewed from one side the apparent distance of the bubble is 12 cm. When viewed from the opposite side, the apparent distance of the bubble is observed as 4 cm. If the side of the ice cube is 24 cm, the refractive index of the ice cube is
(A)34
(B)23
(C)32
(D)56
Q2·PhysicsSingle correct
Two satellites A and B move round the earth in the same orbit. The mass of A is twice the mass of B. The quantity which is same for the two satellites will be:
(A)Potential energy
(B)Total energy
(C)Kinetic energy
(D)Speed
Q3·PhysicsSingle correct
The amplitude of 15 sin(1000πt) signal is modulated by 10 sin(4πt) signal. The amplitude modulated signal contains frequencies of 1. 500 Hz 2. 2 Hz 3. 250 Hz 4. 498 Hz 5. 502 Hz. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A)(1) and (3) only
(B)(2) and (4) only
(C)(3) and (2) only
(D)(1), (4) and (5) only
Q4·PhysicsSingle correct
In an n-p-n common emitter (CE) transistor the collector current changes from 5 mA to 16 mA for the change in base current from 100 μA and 200 μA, respectively. The current gain of transistor is _________.
(A)110
(B)0.9
(C)210
(D)9
Q5·PhysicsSingle correct
If the r.m.s. speed of chlorine molecule is 490 m/s at 27°C, the r.m.s. speed of argon molecules at the same temperature will be (Atomic mass of argon = 39.9u, molecular mass of chlorine = 70.9u)
(A)751.7 m/s
(B)451.7 m/s
(C)651.7 m/s
(D)551.7 m/s
Q6·PhysicsSingle correct
A proton and an α-particle are accelerated from rest by 2V and 4V potentials, respectively. The ratio of their de-Broglie wavelength is:
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The diamagnetic property depends on temperature.
Statement II: The induced magnetic dipole moment in a diamagnetic sample is always opposite to the magnetizing field. In the light of given statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A)Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
(B)Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(C)Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(D)Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
Q8·PhysicsSingle correct
A wire of resistance 160 Ω is melted and drawn in wire of one-fourth of its length. The new resistance of the wire will be
(A)10 Ω
(B)640 Ω
(C)40 Ω
(D)16 Ω
Q9·PhysicsSingle correct
Match List I (physical quantities: spring constant, angular speed, angular momentum, moment of inertia) with List II (dimensional formulae). Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
List I
List II
A.Spring constant
I.[T−1]
B.Angular speed
II.[MT−2]
C.Angular momentum
III.[ML2]
D.Moment of Inertia
IV.[ML2T−1]
(A)A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(B)A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(C)A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(D)A-II, B-III, C-II, D-IV
Q10·PhysicsSingle correct
Three forces F1=10 N, F2=8 N, F3=6 N are acting on a particle of mass 5 kg. The forces F2 and F3 are applied perpendicular so that particle remains at rest. If the force F1 is removed, then the acceleration of the particle is:
(A)2 ms−2
(B)0.5 ms−2
(C)4.8 ms−2
(D)7 ms−2
Q11·PhysicsSingle correct
A body cools from 80°C to 60°C in 5 minutes. The temperature of the surrounding is 20°C. The time it takes to cool from 60°C to 40°C is:
(A)500 s
(B)325 s
(C)450 s
(D)420 s
Q12·PhysicsSingle correct
An engine operating between the boiling and freezing points of water will have 1. efficiency more than 27% 2. efficiency less than the efficiency of a Carnot engine operating between the same two temperatures 3. efficiency equal to 27% 4. efficiency less than 27%. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A)2, 3 and 4 only
(B)2 and 3 only
(C)2 and 4 only
(D)1 and 2 only
Q13·PhysicsSingle correct
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: A truck and a car moving with same kinetic energy are brought to rest by applying brakes which provide equal retarding forces. Both come to rest in equal distance.
Statement II: A car moving towards east takes a turn and moves towards north, the speed remains unchanged. The acceleration of the car is zero. In the light of given statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A)Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(B)Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(C)Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but II not explanation of I
A particle is executing Simple Harmonic Motion (SHM). The ratio of potential energy and kinetic energy of the particle when its displacement is half of its amplitude will be:
(A)1 : 1
(B)2 : 1
(C)1 : 4
(D)1 : 3
Q15·PhysicsSingle correct
A ball is thrown vertically upward with an initial velocity of 150 m/s. The ratio of velocity after 3 s and 5 s is xx+1. The value of x is _________. (Take g=10 m/s2)
(A)6
(B)5
(C)-5
(D)10
Q16·PhysicsSingle correct
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: If we move from poles to equator, the direction of acceleration due to gravity of earth always points downward.
Reason R: Electric dipole consists of two equal and opposite charges. In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B)A is true but R is false
(C)Both A and R true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(D)A is false but R is true
Q17·PhysicsSingle correct
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: EM waves used for optical communication have longer wavelengths than that of microwave, employed in Radar technology.
Reason R: Infrared EM waves are more energetic than microwaves (used in Radar). In the light of given statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A)A is false but R is true
(B)A is true but R is false
(C)Both A and R true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(D)Both A and R true and R is the correct explanation of A
Q18·PhysicsSingle correct
A 12.5 eV electron beam is used to bombard gaseous hydrogen at room temperature. The number of spectral lines emitted will be:
(A)2
(B)1
(C)3
(D)4
Q19·PhysicsSingle correct
The ratio of escape velocity of a planet to the escape velocity of earth will be: Given: Mass of the planet is 16 times mass of the earth and 4 times the radius of earth.
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: When the frequency of an a.c. source in a series LCR circuit increases, the current in the circuit first increases, attains a maximum value and then decreases.
Statement II: In a series LCR circuit, the value of power factor at resonance is one. In the light of given statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A)Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(B)Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C)Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
For a certain organ pipe, the first three resonance frequencies are in the ratio of 1:3:5 respectively. If the frequency of fifth harmonic is 405 Hz and the speed of sound in air is 324 m s−1, the length of the organ pipe is _________ m.
Q22·PhysicsNumerical
For a rolling spherical shell, the ratio of rotational kinetic energy and total kinetic energy is 5x. The value of x is _________.
A compass needle oscillates 20 times per minute at a place where the dip is 30° and 30 times per minute where the dip is 60°. The ratio of total magnetic field due to the earth at the two places respectively is x4. The value of x is _________.
A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.4 T with its plane perpendicular to the field. Somehow, the radius of the loop starts expanding at a constant rate of 1 mm/s. The magnitude of induced emf in the loop at an instant when the radius of the loop is 1 cm will be _________ μV.
Q25·PhysicsNumerical
To maintain a speed of 80 km/h by a bus of mass 500 kg on a plane rough road for 4 km distance, the work done by the engine of the bus will be _________ kJ. [The coefficient of friction between tyre of bus and road is 0.04]
Q26·PhysicsNumerical
Consider an example of alpha decay 92238U→90234Th+24He+Q. Given: 92238U=238.05060u, 90234Th=234.04360u, 24He=4.00260u, and 1u=931.5c2MeV. The energy released (Q) during the alpha decay of 92238U is _________ MeV.
Q27·PhysicsNumerical
The current flowing through a conductor connected across a source is 2A and 1.2 A at 0°C and 50°C respectively. The current flowing through the conductor at 50°C will be _________ ×102 mA.
Two convex lenses of focal length 20 cm each are placed coaxially with a separation of 60 cm between them. The image of the distant object formed by the combination is at _________ cm from the first lens.
Q29·PhysicsNumerical
10 resistors each of resistance 10 Ω can be connected in such as to get maximum and minimum equivalent resistance. The ratio of maximum and minimum equivalent resistance will be _________.
In the reaction shown, a Grignard reagent is formed with Mg and then treated with H2O to give the major product 'A'. 'A' is
(A)(1)
(B)(2)
(C)(3)
(D)(4)
Q32·ChemistrySingle correct
Four gases A, B, C and D have critical temperatures 5.3, 33.2, 126.0 and 154.3K respectively. For their adsorption on fixed amount of charcoal, the correct order is:
(A)C > B > D > A
(B)C > D > B > A
(C)D > C > A > B
(D)D > C > B > A
Q33·ChemistrySingle correct
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: 5f electrons can participate in bonding to a far greater extent than 4f electrons.
Reason R: 5f orbitals are not as buried as 4f orbitals.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A)Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(B)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
The incorrect statement regarding the reaction of the given secondary amine 'A' (shown) with NaNO2 and HX to give 'B' is
(A)The electrophile involved in the reaction is NO+
(B)‘B’ is N-nitroso ammonium compound
(C)The reaction occurs at low temperature
(D)The product ‘B’ formed in the above reaction is p-nitroso compound at low temperature
Q35·ChemistrySingle correct
Match List I (complex) with List II (CFSE in units of Δ0). Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
List I (Complex)
List II (CFSE/$\Delta_0$)
A.[Cu(NH3)4]2+
I.−0.6
B.[Ti(H2O)6]3+
II.−2.0
C.[Fe(CN)6]3−
III.−1.2
D.[NiF6]2−
IV.−0.4
(A)A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(B)A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(C)A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(D)A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
Q36·ChemistrySingle correct
Match List I (polymer) with List II (class). Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
List I (Examples)
List II (Examples)
A.2-Chloro-1,3-butadiene
I.Biodegradable polymer
B.Nylon 2-nylon 6
II.Synthetic Rubber
C.Polyacrylonitrile
III.Polyester
D.Dacron
IV.Addition Polymer
(A)A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(B)A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(C)A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(D)A-IV, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Q37·ChemistrySingle correct
The density of alkali metals is in the order
(A)K < Cs < Na < Rb
(B)Li < K < Na < Rb < Cs
(C)K < Na < Cs < Rb
(D)Na < Rb < K < Cs
Q38·ChemistrySingle correct
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: SbCl5 is more covalent than SbCl3.
Statement II: The higher oxides of halogens also tend to be more stable than the lower ones.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A)Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(B)Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(C)Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(D)Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Q39·ChemistrySingle correct
A metal chloride contains 55.0% of chlorine by weight. 100 mL vapours of the metal chloride at STP weigh 0.57 g. The molecular formula of the metal chloride is (Given: Atomic mass of chlorine is 35.5u)
(A)MCl2
(B)MCl4
(C)MCl3
(D)MCl
Q40·ChemistrySingle correct
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: In the Ellingham diagram, a sharp change in slope of the line is observed for Mg→MgO at ∼1120°C.
Reason R: There is a large change of entropy associated with the change of state.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A)Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(B)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(C)A is false but R is true
(D)A is true but R is false
Q41·ChemistrySingle correct
Match List I (pollutant source) with List II (environmental effect). Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
List I
List II
A.Nitrogen oxides in air
I.Eutrophication
B.Methane in air
II.pH of rain water becomes 5.6
C.Carbon dioxide
III.Global warming
D.Phosphate fertilisers in water
IV.Acid rain
(A)A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(B)A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(C)A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(D)A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
Q42·ChemistrySingle correct
For lead storage battery, pick the correct statement. A. During charging of battery, PbSO4 on anode is converted into PbO2. B. During discharging of battery, PbSO4 on cathode is converted into PbO2. C. Lead storage battery consists of grid of lead packed with PbO2 as anode. D. Lead storage battery has ~38% solution of sulphuric acid as an electrolyte. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A)A, D only
(B)B, C, D only
(C)A, B, D only
(D)B, C only
Q43·ChemistrySingle correct
2-hexene (i)O3;(ii)H2O2 Products. The two products formed in above reaction are:
Correct statements for the given reaction 'A' OH−,2eq 'B' (where 'A' is the structure shown) are: A. Compound 'B' is aromatic. B. The completion of above reaction is very slow. C. 'A' shows tautomerism. D. The bond lengths C-C in compound B are found to be same. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A)A, B and D only
(B)A, B and C only
(C)B, C and D only
(D)A, C and D only
Q45·ChemistrySingle correct
The bond order and magnetic property of acetylide ion are same as that of
(A)NO+
(B)O2+
(C)O2−
(D)N2+
Q46·ChemistrySingle correct
The number of molecules and moles in 2.8375 litres of O2 at STP are respectively
(A)1.752 × 1022 and 0.250 mol
(B)1.505 × 1023 and 0.250 mol
(C)7.527 × 1022 and 0.125 mol
(D)7.527 × 1023 and 0.125 mol
Q47·ChemistrySingle correct
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Boron is extremely hard indicating its high lattice energy.
Statement II: Boron has highest melting and boiling point compared to its other group members.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A)Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(B)Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(C)Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(D)Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Q48·ChemistrySingle correct
'A' OH−,Δ major product. 'A' (shown) and its major product are:
(A)(1)
(B)(2)
(C)(3)
(D)(4)
Q49·ChemistrySingle correct
Match List I (type of hydride) with List II (example). Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
The major product 'P' formed in the following sequence of reactions (on the substrate shown) is: (i) SOCl2; (ii) Benzene/AlCl3; (iii) LiAlH4; (iv) H3O+
(A)(1)
(B)(2)
(C)(3)
(D)(4)
Q51·ChemistryNumerical
One mole of an ideal gas at 350K is in a 2.0 L vessel of thermally conducting walls, which are in contact with the surroundings. It undergoes isothermal reversible expansion from 2.0L to 3.0L against a constant pressure of 4 atm. The change in entropy of the surroundings (ΔS) is _________ J K−1 (Nearest integer). Given: R = 8.314 J K−1 mol−1.
The mass of NH3 produced when 131.8 kg of cyclohexanecarbaldehyde undergoes Tollen's test is _________ kg. (Nearest integer) Molar Mass of C = 12 g/mol, N = 14 g/mol, O = 16 g/mol.
Q53·ChemistryNumerical
In an oligopeptide named Alanylglycylphenyl alanyl isoleucine, the number of sp2 hybridised carbons is _________.
Q54·ChemistryNumerical
An analyst wants to convert 1L HCl of pH = 1 to a solution of HCl at pH 2. The volume of water needed to do this dilution is _________ mL. (Nearest Integer)
Q55·ChemistryNumerical
Three organic compounds A, B and C were allowed to run in thin layer chromatography using hexane and gave the result shown (see figure). The Rf value of the most polar compound is _________ × 10−2
Q56·ChemistryNumerical
80 mole percent of MgCl2 is dissociated in aqueous solution. The vapour pressure of 1.0 molal aqueous solution of MgCl2 at 38°C is _________ mm Hg. (Nearest integer) Given: Vapour pressure of water at 38°C is 50 mm Hg.
For the substrate shown undergoing the reaction sequence (i) HBr(2eq)/H2O2; (ii) H2/Pd, Δ to give 'A', then a further multi-step sequence to give 'D' = C13H19NO4Ix, the value of x in compound 'D' is _________.
Q58·ChemistryNumerical
At 600K, the root mean square (rms) speed of gas X (molar mass = 40) is equal to the most probable speed of gas Y at 90K. The molar mass of the gas Y is _________ g mol−1. (Nearest integer)
Q59·ChemistryNumerical
The reaction 2NO+Br2→2NOBr takes place through the mechanism given below: NO+Br2⇌NOBr2 (fast); NOBr2+NO→2NOBr (slow). The overall order of the reaction is _________.
Q60·ChemistryNumerical
Values of work function (W0) for a few metals are given below — Metal: Li, Na, K, Mg, Cu, Ag; W0/eV: 2.42, 2.3, 2.25, 3.7, 4.8, 4.3. The number of metals which will show photoelectric effect when light of wavelength 400nm falls on it is _________. Given: h = 6.6 × 10−34 J s; c = 3 × 108 m s−1; e = 1.6 × 10−19 C.
Mathematics — JEE Main 12 April 2023 Shift 1
Q61·MathematicsSingle correct
The number of five digit numbers, greater than 40000 and divisible by 5, which can be formed using the digits 0, 1, 3, 5, 7 and 9 without repetition, is equal to
(A)120
(B)132
(C)72
(D)96
Q62·MathematicsSingle correct
Let α,β be the roots of the quadratic equation x2+6x+3=0. Then α15+β15+α10+β10α23+β23+α14+β14 is equal to
(A)729
(B)72
(C)81
(D)9
Q63·MathematicsSingle correct
Let ⟨an⟩ be a sequence such that a1+a2+⋯+an=(n+1)(n+2)n2+3n. If 28∑k=110ak1=p1p2p3⋯pm, where p1,p2,…,pm are the first m prime numbers, then m is equal to
(A)7
(B)6
(C)5
(D)8
Q64·MathematicsSingle correct
Let the lines l1:3x+5=1y+4=−2z−α and l2:3x+2y+z−2=0=x−3y+2z−13 be coplanar. If the point P(a,b,c) on l1 is nearest to the point Q(−4,−3,2), then ∣a∣+∣b∣+∣c∣ is equal to
(A)12
(B)14
(C)10
(D)8
Q65·MathematicsSingle correct
Let P(723,76), Q, R and S be four points on the ellipse 9x2+4y2=36. Let PQ and RS be mutually perpendicular and pass through the origin. If (PQ)21+(RS)21=qp, where p and q are coprime, then p+q is equal to
(A)143
(B)157
(C)137
(D)147
Q66·MathematicsSingle correct
Let a, b, c be three distinct real numbers, none equal to one. If the vectors ai^+j^+k^, i^+bj^+k^ and i^+j^+ck^ are coplanar, then 1−a1+1−b1+1−c1 is equal to
(A)1
(B)-1
(C)3
(D)-2
Q67·MathematicsSingle correct
If the local maximum value of the function f(x)=(2sinx3e)sin2x, x∈(0,2π), is ek, then (ek)8+e5k8+k5 is equal to
(A)e5+e6+e11
(B)e3+e6+e11
(C)e3+e5+e11
(D)e5+e6+e10
Q68·MathematicsSingle correct
Let D be the domain of the function f(x)=sin−1(log3x(−5x6+2log3x)). If the range of the function g:D→R defined by g(x)=x−[x] ([x] is the greatest integer function) is (α,β), then α2+β5 is equal to
(A)46
(B)135
(C)136
(D)45
Q69·MathematicsSingle correct
Let y=y(x), y>0, be a solution curve of the differential equation (1+x2)dy=y(x−y)dx. If y(0)=1 and y(22)=β, then
(A)e1/β=e(3+22)
(B)e1/β=e−2(5+42)
(C)e1/β=e−2(3+22)
(D)e1/β=e(5+42)
Q70·MathematicsSingle correct
Among the two statements (S1): (p⇒q)∧(q∧(∼q)) is a contradiction and (S2): (p∧q)∨((∼p)∧q)∨(p∧(∼q))∨((∼p)∧(∼q)) is a tautology
(A)only (S2) is true
(B)only (S1) is true
(C)both are false
(D)both are true
Q71·MathematicsSingle correct
Let λ∈Z, a=2λi^+j^−k^ and b=3i^−j^+2k^. Let c be a vector such that (a+b+c)×c=0, a⋅c=−17 and b⋅c=−20. Then ∣c×(λi^+j^+k^)∣2 is equal to
(A)62
(B)46
(C)53
(D)49
Q72·MathematicsSingle correct
The sum of the coefficients of the first 50 terms in the binomial expansion of (1−x)100, is equal to
(A)−100C50
(B)99C49
(C)−99C49
(D)100C50
Q73·MathematicsSingle correct
The area of the region enclosed by the curve y=x3 and its tangent at the point (−1,−1) is
(A)427
(B)419
(C)423
(D)431
Q74·MathematicsSingle correct
Let A=[105111]. If B=[1−12−1]A[−11−21], then the sum of all the elements of the matrix ∑n=150Bn is equal to
(A)100
(B)50
(C)75
(D)125
Q75·MathematicsSingle correct
Let the plane P: 4x−y+z=10 be rotated by an angle 2π about its line of intersection with the plane x+y−z=4. If α is the distance of the point (2,3,−4) from the new position of the plane P, then 35α is equal to
(A)90
(B)85
(C)126
(D)170
Q76·MathematicsSingle correct
If n+11nCn+n1nCn−1+⋯+21nC1+nC0=101023 then n is equal to
(A)6
(B)9
(C)8
(D)7
Q77·MathematicsSingle correct
Let C be the circle in the complex plane with centre z0=21(1+3i) and radius r=1. Let z1=1+i and the complex number z2 be outside the circle C such that ∣z1−z0∣∣z2−z0∣=1. If z0, z1 and z2 are collinear, then the smaller value of ∣z2∣2 is equal to
(A)213
(B)25
(C)23
(D)27
Q78·MathematicsSingle correct
If the point (α,373) lies on the curve traced by the mid-points of the line segments of the lines xcosθ+ysinθ=7, θ∈(0,2π) between the co-ordinate axes, then α is equal to
(A)7
(B)-7
(C)−73
(D)73
Q79·MathematicsSingle correct
Two dice A and B are rolled. Let the numbers obtained on A and B be α and β respectively. If the variance of α−β is qp, where p and q are co-prime, then the sum of the positive divisors of p is equal to
(A)36
(B)48
(C)31
(D)72
Q80·MathematicsSingle correct
In a triangle ABC, if cosA+2cosB+cosC=2 and the lengths of the sides opposite to the angles A and C are 3 and 7 respectively, then cosA−cosC is equal to
(A)73
(B)79
(C)710
(D)75
Q81·MathematicsNumerical
A fair die with faces marked 1 to n (n>1) is tossed repeatedly until a number less than n appears. If the mean of the number of tosses required is 9n, then n is equal to
Q82·MathematicsNumerical
Let the digits a, b, c be in A.P. Nine-digit numbers are to be formed using each of these three digits thrice such that three consecutive digits are in A.P. at least once. How many such numbers can be formed?
Let [x] be the greatest integer ≤x. Then the number of points in the interval (−2,1), where the function f(x)=∣[x]∣+x−[x] is discontinuous is _________.
Q84·MathematicsNumerical
Let the plane x+3y−2z+6=0 meet the co-ordinate axes at the points A, B, C. If the orthocentre of the triangle ABC is (α,β,76), then 98(α+β)2 is equal to _________.
Q85·MathematicsNumerical
Let I=∫xx+7dx and I(1)=α+7loge(1+22), then α4 is equal to _________.
Q86·MathematicsNumerical
Let Dk=1nn2kn2+n+2n2+n2k−1n2n2+n+2. If ∑k=1nDk=96, then n is equal to
Q87·MathematicsNumerical
Let the positive numbers a1,a2,a3,a4 and a5 be in a G.P. Let their mean and variance be 1031 and nm respectively, where m and n are co-prime. If the mean of their reciprocals is 4031 and a3+a4+a5=14, then m+n is equal to _________.
Q88·MathematicsNumerical
The number of relations, on the set {1,2,3} containing (1,2) and (2,3), which are reflexive and transitive but not symmetric, is _________.
Q89·MathematicsNumerical
If ∫−0.150.15100x2−1dx=3000k, then k is equal to _________.
Q90·MathematicsNumerical
Two circles in the first quadrant of radii r1 and r2 touch the coordinate axes. Each of them cuts off an intercept of 2 units with the line x+y=2. Then r12+r22−r1r2 is equal to _________.
Chapters tested in this paper
Open any chapter to practise every past-year question on that topic across all papers, and see how often it has actually appeared.
Take the 12 April 2023 Shift 1 paper as a timed mock and Jarvis marks it, then tells you which errors were conceptual gaps, which were silly mistakes, and which pattern you have now repeated. Step-by-step solutions for every question included.