JEE Main 15 April 2023 Shift 1 Question Paper with Answers
15 April 2023 · April session · 90 questions
The complete JEE Main 15 April 2023 Shift 1 paper — all 90 questions with the correct answer for each, tagged to the chapter it tests. Free to read, no account needed.
Physics
30
Chemistry
30
Mathematics
30
Physics — JEE Main 15 April 2023 Shift 1
Q1·PhysicsSingle correct
The electric field due to a short electric dipole at a large distance (r) from center of dipole on the equatorial plane varies with distance as :
(A)r
(B)r1
(C)r31
(D)r21
Q2·PhysicsSingle correct
In a linear simple harmonic motion (SHM)
(A) Restoring force is directly proportional to the displacement.
(B) The acceleration and displacement are opposite in direction.
(C) The velocity is maximum at mean position.
(D) The acceleration is minimum at extreme points.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A)(A), (B) and (C) only
(B)(C) and (D) only
(C)(A), (B) and (D) only
(D)(A), (C) and (D) only
Q3·PhysicsSingle correct
Two identical particles each of mass 'm' go round a circle of radius a under the action of their mutual gravitational attraction. The angular speed of each particle will be :
(A)2a3Gm
(B)8a3Gm
(C)4a3Gm
(D)a3Gm
Q4·PhysicsSingle correct
The height of transmitting antenna is 180 m and the height of the receiving antenna is 245 m. The maximum distance between them for satisfactory communication in line of sight will be :
(given R=6400 km)
(A)48 km
(B)56 km
(C)96 km
(D)104 km
Q5·PhysicsSingle correct
The half-life of a radioactive nucleus is 5 years, The fraction of the original sample that would decay in 15 years is :
(A)81
(B)41
(C)87
(D)43
Q6·PhysicsSingle correct
The de Broglie wavelength of an electron having kinetic energy E is λ. If the kinetic energy of electron becomes 4E, then its de-Broglie wavelength will be :
For designing a voltmeter of range 50 V and an ammeter of range 10 mA using a galvanometer which has a coil of resistance 54 Ω showing a full scale deflection for 1 mA as in figure.
(A) for voltmeter R≈50 kΩ
(B) for ammeter r≈0.2Ω
(C) for ammeter r≈6Ω
(D) for voltmeter R≈5 kΩ
(E) for voltmeter R≈500Ω
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A)(C) and (E)
(B)(C) and (D)
(C)(A) and (C)
(D)(A) and (B)
Q8·PhysicsSingle correct
A flask contains Hydrogen and Argon in the ratio 2:1 by mass. The temperature of the mixture is 30∘C. The ratio of average kinetic energy per molecule of the two gases (K argon/K hydrogen) is: (Given: Atomic Weight of Ar = 39.9)
(A)1
(B)2
(C)239.9
(D)39.9
Q9·PhysicsSingle correct
Given below are two statements:
Statement I : The equivalent resistance of resistors in a series combination is smaller than least resistance used in the combination.
Statement II : The resistivity of the material is independent of temperature.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A)Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(B)Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(C)Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(D)Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Q10·PhysicsSingle correct
A body is released from a height equal to the radius (R) of the earth. The velocity of the body when it strikes the surface of the earth will be :
(Given g = acceleration due to gravity on the earth.)
(A)gR
(B)4gR
(C)2gR
(D)2gR
Q11·PhysicsSingle correct
A 12 V battery connected to a coil of resistance 6 Ω through a switch, drives a constant current in the circuit. The switch is opened in 1 ms. The emf induced across the coil is 20 V. The inductance of the coil is :
(A)5 mH
(B)12 mH
(C)8 mH
(D)10 mH
Q12·PhysicsSingle correct
A wire of length 'L' and radius 'r' is clamped rigidly at one end. When the other end of the wire is pulled by a force f, its length increases by 'ℓ'. Another wire of same material of length '2L' and radius '2r' is pulled by a force '2f'. Then the increase in its length will be :
(A)2ℓ
(B)ℓ
(C)4ℓ
(D)ℓ/2
Q13·PhysicsSingle correct
The position of a particle related to time is given by x=(5t2−4t+5) m. The magnitude of velocity of the particle at t=2 s will be :
(A)10 ms−1
(B)14 ms−1
(C)16 ms−1
(D)06 ms−1
Q14·PhysicsSingle correct
The position vector of a particle related to time t is given by r=(10ti^+15t2j^+7k^) m. The direction of net force experienced by the particle is :
(A)Positive y-axis
(B)Positive x-axis
(C)Positive z-axis
(D)In x-y plane
Q15·PhysicsSingle correct
Match List I (Electromagnetic waves) with List II (corresponding wavelength range). List I: (A) Microwave, (B) Ultraviolet, (C) X-Ray, (D) Infra-red. List II: (I) 400 nm to 1 nm, (II) 1 nm to 10−3 nm, (III) 1 mm to 700 nm, (IV) 0.1 m to 1mm. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
List-I
List-II
A.Microwave
I.400 nm to 1 nm
B.Ultraviolet
II.1 nm to 10−3 nm
C.X-Ray
IV.0.1 m to 1mm
D.Infra-red
III.1 mm to 700 nm
(A)(A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
(B)(A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
(C)(A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
(D)(A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
Q16·PhysicsSingle correct
A vector in x-y plane makes an angle of 30∘ with y-axis. The magnitude of y-component of vector is 23. The magnitude of x-component of the vector will be :
(A)31
(B)6
(C)3
(D)2
Q17·PhysicsSingle correct
The speed of a wave produced in water is given by v=λagbρc. Where λ, g and ρ are wavelength of wave, acceleration due to gravity and density of water respectively. The values of a, b and c respectively, are :
(A)21,21,0
(B)1,1,0
(C)1,−1,0
(D)21,0,21
Q18·PhysicsSingle correct
A thermodynamic system is taken through cyclic process. The total work done in the process is :
(A)100 J
(B)300 J
(C)Zero
(D)200 J
Q19·PhysicsSingle correct
A single slit of width a is illuminated by a monochromatic light of wavelength 600 nm. The value of 'a' for which first minimum appears at θ=30∘ on the screen will be :
(A)0.6μm
(B)1.2μm
(C)1.8μm
(D)3μm
Q20·PhysicsSingle correct
In the given circuit, the current (I) through the battery will be :
(A)1.5 A
(B)1 A
(C)2.5 A
(D)2 A
Q21·PhysicsNumerical
A 20 cm long metallic rod is rotated with 210 rpm about an axis normal to the rod passing through its one end. The other end of the rod is in contact with a circular metallic ring. A constant and uniform magnetic field 0.2 T parallel to the axis exists everywhere. The emf developed between the centre and the ring is __________ mV. Take π=722.
Q22·PhysicsNumerical
A network of four resistances is connected to 9 V battery, as shown in figure. The magnitude of voltage difference between the points A and B is __________ V.
Q23·PhysicsNumerical
The fundamental frequency of vibration of a string stretched between two rigid support is 50 Hz. The mass of the string is 18 g and its linear mass density is 20 g/m. The speed of the transverse waves so produced in the string is __________ ms−1.
Q24·PhysicsNumerical
As per given figure A, B and C are the first, second and third excited energy level of hydrogen atom respectively. If the ratio of the two wavelengths (i.e. λ2λ1) is 4n7, then the value of n will be __________.
Q25·PhysicsNumerical
A solid sphere and a solid cylinder of same mass and radius are rolling on a horizontal surface without slipping. The ratio of their radius of gyrations respectively (ksph:kcyl) is 2:x, then value of x is __________.
Q26·PhysicsNumerical
The refractive index of a transparent liquid filled in an equilateral hollow prism is 2. The angle of minimum deviation for the liquid will be __________ ∘.
Q27·PhysicsNumerical
An electron in a hydrogen atom revolves around its nucleus with a speed of 6.76×106 ms−1 in an orbit of radius 0.52 A∘. The magnetic field produced at the nucleus of the hydrogen atom is __________ T.
Q28·PhysicsNumerical
There is an air bubble of radius 1.0 mm in a liquid of surface tension 0.075 Nm−1 and density 1000 kg m−3 at a depth of 10 cm below the free surface. The amount by which the pressure inside the bubble is greater than the atmospheric pressure is __________ Pa (g=10 ms−2).
Q29·PhysicsNumerical
A block of mass 10 kg is moving along x-axis under the action of force F=5x N. The work done by the force in moving the block from x=2m to 4m will be __________ J.
Q30·PhysicsNumerical
In the given figure the total charge stored in the combination of capacitors is 100μC. The value of 'x' is __________.
Chemistry — JEE Main 15 April 2023 Shift 1
Q31·ChemistrySingle correct
Match List I with List II:
List I-(Monomer)
List II-(Polymer)
A.Tetrafluoroethene
I.Orlon
B.Acrylonitrile
II.Natural rubber
C.Caprolactam
III.Teflon
D.Isoprene
IV.Nylon-6
(A)(A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(B)(A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(C)(A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
(D)(A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
Q32·ChemistrySingle correct
The product formed in the following multistep reaction is: CH3−CH=CH2 with i) B2H6 ii) H2O2,NaOH iii) PCC iv) CH3MgBr
(A)CH3−CH2−CH(OH)−CH3
(B)CH3−CH2−CH2−CH2−OH
(C)CH3−CH2−C(=O)−OCH3
(D)CH3−C(OH)(CH3)−CH3
Q33·ChemistrySingle correct
The possibility of photochemical smog formation will be minimum at
(A)Kolkata in October
(B)Mumbai in May
(C)New-Delhi in August (Summer)
(D)Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir in January
Q34·ChemistrySingle correct
Which one of the following is not an example of calcination?
(A)Fe2O3⋅xH2OΔFe2O3+xH2O
(B)CaCO3ΔCaO+CO2
(C)CaCO3⋅MgCO3ΔCaO+MgO+2CO2
(D)2PbS+3O2Δ2PbO+2SO2
Q35·ChemistrySingle correct
Consider the following statements: (A) NF3 molecule has a trigonal planar structure. (B) Bond length of N2 is shorter than O2. (C) Isoelectronic molecules or ions have identical bond order. (D) Dipole moment of H2S is higher than that of water molecule. Choose the correct answer from the option below:
(A)(A) and (D) are correct
(B)(C) and (D) are correct
(C)(A) and (B) are correct
(D)(B) and (C) are correct
Q36·ChemistrySingle correct
Consider the following sequence of reactions: aniline (C6H5NH2) with NaNO2 at 0−5∘C gives 'A', then 'A' with N,N-Dimethylaniline gives 'B'. The product 'B' is
(A)(1)
(B)(2)
(C)(3)
(D)(4)
Q37·ChemistrySingle correct
The number of P-O-P bonds in H4P2O7, (HPO3)3 and P4O10 are respectively.
(A)1, 3, 6
(B)0, 3, 6
(C)0, 3, 4
(D)1, 2, 4
Q38·ChemistrySingle correct
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: According to Bohr's model of hydrogen atom, the angular momentum of an electron in a given stationary state is quantised.
Statement II: The concept of electron in Bohr's orbit, violates the Heisenberg uncertainty principle.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A)Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(B)Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(C)Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(D)Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
Decreasing order of reactivity towards electrophilic substitution for the following compounds is: (a) toluene, (b) benzene, (c) 1-(trifluoromethyl)... (a benzene ring with CF3), (d) anisole (benzene with OCH3), (e) N,N-dimethylaniline (benzene with NMe2).
(A)c > b > a > d > e
(B)e > d > a > b > c
(C)a > d > e > b > c
(D)d > a > e > c > b
Q40·ChemistrySingle correct
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (A) The pH of 1×10−8 M HCl solution is 8. (B) The conjugate base H2PO4− is HPO42−. (C) Kw increases with increase in temperature. (D) When a solution of weak monoprotic acid is titrated against a strong base at half neutralisation point, pH=21pKa. Choose the correct answer from the option given below.
(A)(B), (C), (D)
(B)(A), (D)
(C)(A), (B), (C)
(D)(B), (C)
Q41·ChemistrySingle correct
Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R:
Assertion (A): BeCl2 and MgCl2 produce characteristic flame.
Reason (R): The excitation energy is high in BeCl2 and MgCl2.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below:
(A)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(B)(A) is false but (R) is true
(C)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(D)(A) is true but (R) is false.
Q42·ChemistrySingle correct
In the above conversion the correct sequence of reagents to be added is (the conversion shown is 4-nitrotoluene to 2-bromo-4-chlorobenzoic acid).
(A)(i) Fe/H+, (ii) HONO, (iii) CuCl, (iv) KMnO4, (v) Br2
(B)(i) KMnO4, (ii) Br2/Fe, (iii) Fe/H+, (iv) Cl2
(C)(i) Br2/Fe, (ii) Fe/H+, (iii) HONO, (iv) CuCl, (v) KMnO4
(D)Br2/Fe, (ii) Fe/H+, (iii) KMnO4, (iv) Cl2
Q43·ChemistrySingle correct
For the drawn 1,2,3-indantrione (ninhydrin-type triketone of indane) reacting with H2O to give major product 'A', the major product 'A' formed in the above reaction is
(A)(1)
(B)(2)
(C)(3)
(D)(4)
Q44·ChemistrySingle correct
Which is not true for arginine?
(A)It is a crystalline solid.
(B)It is associated with more than one pKa values.
(C)It has a fairly high melting point.
(D)It has high solubility in benzene.
Q45·ChemistrySingle correct
During water-gas shift reaction
(A)carbon monoxide is oxidized to carbon dioxide.
(B)carbon is oxidized to carbon monoxide.
(C)carbon dioxide is reduced to carbon monoxide.
(D)water is evaporated in presence of catalyst.
Q46·ChemistrySingle correct
For a good quality cement, the ratio of silica to alumina is found to be
(A)3
(B)4.5
(C)2
(D)1.5
Q47·ChemistrySingle correct
Which the following statement is correct for paper chromatography?
(A)Water present in the mobile phase gets absorbed by the paper which then forms the stationary phase.
(B)Water present in the pores of the paper forms the stationary phase.
(C)Paper sheet forms the stationary phase.
(D)Paper and water present in its pores together form the stationary phase.
Q48·ChemistrySingle correct
The major product formed in the Friedel-Craft acylation of chlorobenzene is.
(A)(1)
(B)(2)
(C)(3)
(D)(4)
Q49·ChemistrySingle correct
The complex with highest magnitude of crystal field splitting energy (Δo) is
(A)[Cr(OH2)6]3+
(B)[Ti(OH2)6]3+
(C)[Fe(OH2)6]3+
(D)[Mn(OH2)6]3+
Q50·ChemistrySingle correct
Which of the following expressions is correct in case of a CsCl unit cell (edge length 'a')?
(A)rCs++rCl−=2a
(B)rCs++rCl−=a
(C)rCs++rCl−=23a
(D)rCs++rCl−=2a
Q51·ChemistryNumerical
The homoleptic and octahedral complex of Co2+ and H2O has _______ unpaired electron(s) in the t2g set of orbitals.
Q52·ChemistryNumerical
The volume (in mL) of 0.1 M AgNO3 required for complete precipitation of chloride ions present in 20 mL of 0.01 M solution of [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2 as silver chloride is _______
Q53·ChemistryNumerical
The total change in the oxidation state of manganese involved in the reaction of KMnO4 and potassium iodide in the acidic medium is _______
Q54·ChemistryNumerical
In Chromyl chloride, the oxidation state of chromium is (+)_______
Q55·ChemistryNumerical
The total number of isoelectronic species from the given set is _______ O2−,F−,Al,Mg2+,Na+,O+,Mg,Al3+,F
Q56·ChemistryNumerical
The vapour pressure of 30% (w/v) aqueous solution of glucose is _______ mm Hg at 25 C. [Given : The density of 30% (w/v), aqueous solution of glucose is 1.2 g cm−3 and vapour pressure of pure water is 24 mm Hg.] (Molar mass of glucose is 180 g mol−1.)
Q57·ChemistryNumerical
20 mL of 0.5 M NaCl is required to coagulate 200 mL of As2S3 solution in 2 hours. The coagulating value of NaCl is _______
Q58·ChemistryNumerical
For a reversible reaction A⇌B, the ΔHforwardreaction=20 kJ mol−1. The activation energy of the uncatalysed forward reaction is 300 kJ mol−1. When the reaction is catalysed keeping the reactant concentration same, the rate of the catalysed forward reaction at 27 C is found to be same as that of the uncatalysed reaction at 327 C. The activation energy of the catalysed backward reaction is _______ kJ mol−1.
Q59·ChemistryNumerical
The number of correct statements from the following is _______ (A) Conductivity always decreases with decrease in concentration for both strong and weak electrolytes. (B) The number of ions per unit volume that carry current in a solution increases on dilution. (C) Molar conductivity increases with decrease in concentration. (D) The variation in molar conductivity is different for strong and weak electrolytes. (E) For weak electrolytes, the change in molar conductivity with dilution is due to decrease in degree of dissociation.
Q60·ChemistryNumerical
30.4 kJ of heat is required to melt one mole of sodium chloride and the entropy change at the melting point is 28.4 J K−1mol−1 at 1 atm. The melting point of sodium chloride is _______ K (Nearest Integer)
Mathematics — JEE Main 15 April 2023 Shift 1
Q61·MathematicsSingle correct
The total number of three-digit numbers, divisible by 3, which can be formed using the digits 1, 3, 5, 8, if repetition of digits is allowed, is:
(A)22
(B)18
(C)21
(D)20
Q62·MathematicsSingle correct
Let S be the set of all values of λ, for which the shortest distance between the lines 0x−λ=4y−3=1z+6 and 3x+λ=−4y=0z−6 is 13. Then 8∑λ∈Sλ is equal to
(A)304
(B)308
(C)306
(D)302
Q63·MathematicsSingle correct
The mean and standard deviation of 10 observations are 20 and 8 respectively. Later on, it was observed that one observation was recorded as 50 instead of 40. Then the correct variance is:
(A)14
(B)13
(C)12
(D)11
Q64·MathematicsSingle correct
Let ABCD be a quadrilateral. If E and F are the mid points of the diagonals AC and BD respectively and (AB−BC)+(AD−DC)=kFE, then k is equal to
(A)2
(B)−2
(C)−4
(D)4
Q65·MathematicsSingle correct
Let x=x(y) be the solution of the differential equation 2(y+2)loge(y+2)dx+(x+4−2loge(y+2))dy=0, y>−1 with x(e4−2)=1. Then x(e9−2) is equal to
(A)94
(B)310
(C)932
(D)3
Q66·MathematicsSingle correct
Let [x] denote the greatest integer function and f(x)=max{1+x+[x],2+x,x+2[x]}, 0≤x≤2. Let m be the number of points in [0,2], where f is not continuous and n be the number of points in (0,2), where f is not differentiable. Then (m+n)2+2 is equal to:
(A)11
(B)2
(C)6
(D)3
Q67·MathematicsSingle correct
The number of real roots of the equation x∣x∣−5∣x+2∣+6=0, is
(A)5
(B)3
(C)6
(D)4
Q68·MathematicsSingle correct
Let (a+bx+cx2)10=∑i=020pixi, a,b,c∈N. If p1=20 and p2=210, then 2(a+b+c) is equal to
(A)8
(B)12
(C)15
(D)6
Q69·MathematicsSingle correct
Let the determinant of a square matrix A of order m be m−n, where m and n satisfy 4m+n=22 and 17m+4n=93. If det(nadj(adj(mA)))=3a5b6c, then a+b+c is equal to:
(A)96
(B)101
(C)109
(D)84
Q70·MathematicsSingle correct
Let A1 and A2 be two arithmetic means and G1,G2,G3 be three geometric means of two distinct positive numbers. The G14+G24+G34+G12G32 is equal to
(A)2(A1+A2)G1G3
(B)(A1+A2)2G1G3
(C)(A1+A2)G12G32
(D)2(A1+A2)G12G32
Q71·MathematicsSingle correct
If the set {Re(2−3z+5zˉz−zˉ+zzˉ):z∈C,Re(z)=3} is equal to the interval (α,β], then 24(β−α) is equal to
(A)36
(B)42
(C)27
(D)30
Q72·MathematicsSingle correct
The number of common tangents, to the circles x2+y2−18x−15y+131=0 and x2+y2−6x−6y−7=0, is :
(A)3
(B)2
(C)1
(D)4
Q73·MathematicsSingle correct
Negation of p∧(q∧∼(p∧q)) is
(A)∼(p∨q)
(B)p∨q
(C)(∼(p∧q))∧q
(D)(∼(p∧q))∨p
Q74·MathematicsSingle correct
Let the system of linear equations −x+2y−9z=7, −x+3y+7z=9, −2x+y+5z=8, −3x+y+13z=λ has a unique solution x=α,y=β,z=γ. Then the distance of the point (α,β,γ) from the plane 2x−2y+z=λ is
(A)9
(B)11
(C)13
(D)7
Q75·MathematicsSingle correct
If (α,β) is the orthocentre of the triangle ABC with vertices A(3,−7), B(−1,2) and C(4,5), then 9α−6β+60 is equal to:
(A)30
(B)25
(C)40
(D)35
Q76·MathematicsSingle correct
Let the foot of perpendicular of the point P(3,−2,−9) on the plane passing through the points (−1,−2,−3), (9,3,4), (9,−2,1) be Q(α,β,γ). Then the distance of Q from the origin is:
(A)29
(B)35
(C)42
(D)38
Q77·MathematicsSingle correct
A bag contains 6 white and 4 black balls. A die is rolled once and the number of balls equal to the number obtained on the die are drawn from the bag at random. The probability that all the balls drawn are white is:
(A)41
(B)509
(C)51
(D)5011
Q78·MathematicsSingle correct
If ∫01(5+2x−2x2)(1+e(2−4x))1dx=α1loge(βα+1), α,β>0, then α4−β4 is equal to:
(A)21
(B)0
(C)19
(D)−21
Q79·MathematicsSingle correct
Let S be the set of all (λ,μ) for which the vectors λi^−j^+k^, i^+2j^+μk^ and 3i^−4j^+5k^, where λ−μ=5, are coplanar, then ∑(λ,μ)∈S80(λ2+μ2) is equal to:
(A)2370
(B)2130
(C)2290
(D)2210
Q80·MathematicsSingle correct
If the domain of the function f(x)=loge(4x2+11x+6)+sin−1(4x+3)+cos−1(310x+6) is (α,β], then 36∣α+β∣ is equal to:
(A)63
(B)45
(C)72
(D)54
Q81·MathematicsNumerical
If the sum of the series (21−31)+(221−2⋅31+321)+(231−22⋅31+2⋅321−331)+(241−23⋅31+22⋅321−2⋅331+341)+⋯ is βα, where α and β are co-prime, then α+3β is equal to....
Q82·MathematicsNumerical
A person forgets his 4-digit ATM pin code. But he remembers that in the code all the digits are different, the greatest digit is 7 and the sum of the first two digits is equal to the sum of the last two digits. Then the maximum number of trials necessary to obtain the correct code is____
Q83·MathematicsNumerical
Let the plane P contain the line 2x+y−z−3=0=5x−3y+4z+9 and be parallel to the line 2x+2=−43−y=5z−7. Then the distance of the point A(8,−1,−19) from the plane P measured parallel to the line −3x=4y−5=−122−z is equal to____
Q84·MathematicsNumerical
Let an ellipse with centre (1,0) and latus rectum of length 21 have its major axis along x-axis. If its minor axis subtends an angle 60∘ at the foci, then the square of the sum of the lengths of its minor and major axes is equal to____
Q85·MathematicsNumerical
Let A={1,2,3,4} and R be a relation on the set A×A defined by R={((a,b),(c,d)):2a+3b=4c+5d}. Then the number of elements in R is:
Q86·MathematicsNumerical
The number of elements in the set {n∈N:10≤n≤100 and 3n−3 is a multiple of 7} is____
Q87·MathematicsNumerical
If the line x=y=z intersects the line xsinA+ysinB+zsinC−18=0=xsin2A+ysin2B+zsin2C−9, where A,B,C are the angles of a triangle ABC, then 80(sin2Asin2Bsin2C) is equal to____
Q88·MathematicsNumerical
If the area bounded by the curve 2y2=3x, lines x+y=3, y=0 and outside the circle (x−3)2+y2=2 is A, then 4(π+4A) is equal to____
Q89·MathematicsNumerical
Consider the triangles with vertices A(2,1), B(0,0) and C(t,4), t∈[0,4]. If the maximum and the minimum perimeters of such triangles are obtained at t=α and t=β respectively, then 6α+21β is equal to____
Q90·MathematicsNumerical
Let f(x)=∫(3+4x2)4−3x2dx, ∣x∣<32. If f(0)=0 and f(1)=αβ1tan−1(βα), α,β>0, then α2+β2 is equal to____
Chapters tested in this paper
Open any chapter to practise every past-year question on that topic across all papers, and see how often it has actually appeared.
Take the 15 April 2023 Shift 1 paper as a timed mock and Jarvis marks it, then tells you which errors were conceptual gaps, which were silly mistakes, and which pattern you have now repeated. Step-by-step solutions for every question included.